Calvinism Denies Scripture: "All" = Some

"... 'The whole world is gone after him.' Did all the world go after Christ? 'Then went all Judea, and were baptized of him in Jordan.' Was all Judea, or all Jerusalem baptized in Jordan? 'Ye are of God, little children', and 'the whole world lieth in the wicked one.' Does 'the whole world' there mean everybody? If so, how was it, then, that there were some who were 'of God?' The words 'world' and 'all' are used in some seven or eight senses in Scripture; and it is very rarely that 'all' means all persons, taken individually. The words are generally used to signify that Christ has redeemed some of all sorts—some Jews, some Gentiles, some rich, some poor, and has not restricted his redemption to either Jew or Gentile."
Charles H. Spurgeon, Particular Redemption, A Sermon, 28 Feb 1858​

SCRIPTURE:

Then went out to him Jerusalem, and all Judaea, and all the region round about Jordan, and were baptized of him in Jordan, confessing their sins.
Matthew 3:5-6​

CALVINIST:

Nahh, come on, you don't buy that! All Judaea was baptized by John the Baptist?? No, no come on! You know that's not true. You just know!!

QUESTION:

If it's not true, then why does Scripture say so?? Scripture lies?! I guess it's only a "white lie"...

 

"... 'The whole world is gone after him.' Did all the world go after Christ? 'Then went all Judea, and were baptized of him in Jordan.' Was all Judea, or all Jerusalem baptized in Jordan? 'Ye are of God, little children', and 'the whole world lieth in the wicked one.' Does 'the whole world' there mean everybody? If so, how was it, then, that there were some who were 'of God?' The words 'world' and 'all' are used in some seven or eight senses in Scripture; and it is very rarely that 'all' means all persons, taken individually. The words are generally used to signify that Christ has redeemed some of all sorts—some Jews, some Gentiles, some rich, some poor, and has not restricted his redemption to either Jew or Gentile."
Charles H. Spurgeon, Particular Redemption, A Sermon, 28 Feb 1858​

C. H. Spurgeon is quoting John 12:19, "The Pharisees therefore said among themselves, 'Perceive ye how ye prevail nothing? behold, the world is gone after him.'"

(1) The word "all" (pas, G3956) does not appear in John 12:19. Therefore, John 12:19 cannot be used to determine the meaning of "all" (pas, G3956). Spurgeon's analysis is, therefore, spurious and irrelevant.

(2) Even allowing for Spurgeon's de facto insertion of "all" (pas, G3956) into John 12:19, even so, did the "[whole] world" go after Jesus? Certainly not — for Ananias, Caiaphas, the Priests, the Sadducees, the Pharisees, the Scribes, and the Romans all joined forces to crucify the Messiah.

So is Scripture in error? Let us re-read verse:

The Pharisees therefore said among themselves, 'Perceive ye how ye prevail nothing? behold, the world is gone after him.'
John 12:19​

Is further comment warranted?

Spurgeon has impugned the authority of Scripture based upon the obviously false testimony of the Pharisee opponents of the Messiah (!).

Then Jesus said unto them, 'Take heed and beware of the leaven of the Pharisees and of the Sadducees'... 'How is it that ye do not understand that I spake it not to you concerning bread, that ye should beware of the leaven of the Pharisees and of the Sadducees?' Then understood they how that he bade them not beware of the leaven of bread, but of the doctrine of the Pharisees and of the Sadducees.
Matthew 16:6,11-12​

 

"... 'The whole world is gone after him.' Did all the world go after Christ? 'Then went all Judea, and were baptized of him in Jordan.' Was all Judea, or all Jerusalem baptized in Jordan? 'Ye are of God, little children', and 'the whole world lieth in the wicked one.' Does 'the whole world' there mean everybody? If so, how was it, then, that there were some who were 'of God?' The words 'world' and 'all' are used in some seven or eight senses in Scripture; and it is very rarely that 'all' means all persons, taken individually. The words are generally used to signify that Christ has redeemed some of all sorts—some Jews, some Gentiles, some rich, some poor, and has not restricted his redemption to either Jew or Gentile."
Charles H. Spurgeon, Particular Redemption, A Sermon, 28 Feb 1858​

C. H. Spurgeon is quoting 1 John 5:19, "We know that we are of God, and that the whole world lieth in the power of the wicked one."

Spurgeon is asking, if John and his Believing readers are "of God", then how can the wicked one dominate the whole world?

(1) Again, the word "all" (pas, G3956) does not appear in this verse (1 John 5:19). Again, this verse is irrelevant for determining the meaning of the word "all" (pas, G3956).

(2) This verse (1 John 5:19) does say, "whole world". The actual Greek words behind this translation are Holos (G3650) Kosmos (G2889). So, can it truly be that — as Scripture says here — the "whole world" is dominated by the adversary?

(A) The Messiah says so, "Now is the judgment of this world (Kosmos, G2889): now shall the prince of this world (Kosmos, G2889) be cast out" (John 12:31).​

Then how can God-fearing men dwell in this world (Kosmos, G2889??

(B) The Messiah said, "Jesus answered, 'My kingdom is not of this world (Kosmos, G2889): if my kingdom were of this world, then would my servants fight, that I should not be delivered to the Jews: but now is my kingdom not from hence' (John 18:36).​

(3) Note that all these Scriptural references are particularly instructive because these verses were all penned by the same author, John. Thus, you can be "doubly sure" that these verses, using the same words, are mutually relevant.