Christ died for Us?

Romans 5:8 (NASB)
But God demonstrates His own love toward us, in that while we were still sinners, Christ died for us.

The body of Christ is divided over whether Christ died for us, the ungodly, or Christ died for us, the elect.

However, since Romans 5:6 clearly states Christ died for the ungodly, there should be no division. However some posit that an "elect" or person chosen for salvation can be said to be ungodly, limited atonement, for the elect only, is still possible. But in light of Romans 8:33, the claim that the elect, those chosen by God for salvation, can be considered to be still "ungodly" seems farfetched.

If at the time of Paul's writing, i.e during the time the old covenant had been made obsolete, and everyone is set apart under the New Covenant in His blood, no charge of ungodliness could be brought against God's elect, then what is the basis of the divide? Ignorance or Apathy?

In 2 Peter 2:1 we see that that people heading for destruction were bought by the Lord (Christ) but some say the Lord in view is not Christ. However, the Greek word is elsewhere used to refer to Christ, so the objection is so thin it becomes transparent. See Jude 1:4.

Can those claim Christ died for all people use 2 Corinthians 5:14-15? Nope, as clearly these verses refer to those who are no longer dead in sin, but alive in Christ. Thus for all saved people is the idea.

Can those claiming Christ died only for the church us Ephesians 5:25: Nope, as Christ dying for all people includes the church, or any other segment of humanity suggested by other verses.

 

Got it, you claim only the elect are the ungodly, but that is ok because you claim to be able to bring a valid charge against the elect.