Eric B said:
If you couldn't hear one another, then fine, there are too many instruments, or they are overamplified. But since the average church that uses a piano does not have this happen, that is non-sequitur for this argument. (Larger churches with pipe organs could take note of this, though)
Eric,
bmerr here. The point is, we are not to add to the word of God (Rev 22:18). God has given unto us all things pertaining to life and godliness (2 Pet 1:3), and it doesn't include using the instrument in worship.
Since it is not an actual literal physical sacrifice, your analogy doesn't fit.
Under the NT, there
are no literal, physical sacrifices. Yet, there are sacrifices in the NT.
Heb 13:15-16 - By him therefore let us offer the
sacrifice of praise to God continually, that is, the fruit of our lips giving thanks to his name. But to do good and to communicate forget not: for with such
sacrifices God is well pleased.
1 Pet 2:5 - Ye also, as lively stones, are built up a spiritual house, and holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual
sacrifices, acceptable to God by Jesus Christ.
Rom 12:1 - I beseech you therefore, brethren, by the mercies of God, that ye present your bodies a living
sacrifice, holy, acceptable to God, which is your reasonable service.
Phil 2:17 - yea, and if I be offered upon the
sacrifice and service of your faith, I joy, and rejoice with you all.
Phil 4:18 - But I have all, and abound: I am full, having received of Epaphroditus the things which were sent from you, an odour of a sweet smell, a
sacrifice acceptable, wellpleasing to God.
None of these were literal, physical sacrifices, yet the standard for sacrifice to God still applies. We cannot please Him if we offer what He has not commanded.
I just looked it up in Wiktionary and wikipedia, and actually, you were right.
It is often spelled "acapella", so that must be why I thought it was like "atheism". It means "Like in the chapel choir". I never knew "a" could mean "like in". "the term is due to restrictions on the use of instruments in medieval churches".
Very gracious of you to say so. No harm done. As I said, I'm no linguist by any stretch, so what evidence I may present is from what faithful brethren have taught me, or what I found in Strong's or something. We're all learning. :thumbs:
Still, that does not prove it Biblical, it is a retrospective look at the practices of a Church that had already added centuries of human tradition and interpetation (should we copy their doctrine on the Eucharist or Mary as well?)
No, that by itself does not prove it's scriptural, but it does indicate that at that point, the instrument was still not being used, and, by this time, official Roman persecution had long since ceased with emperor Constantine, who came to power around 323 AD.
Many false doctrines had crept into the church by the time the instrument was introduced around the beginning of the 5th century. Up to this point, the truth was still being practiced concerning singing in worship.
One of the distinguishing marks of Christianity is that those who practice it are to be a "peculiar people" (1 Pet 2:9). In the first century, muscial instruments were used by the Jews, and by the pagans that surrounded the Christians. One of many things that set Christians apart from the religions around them was the fact that they did not use musical instruments in worship.
Alas, the downfall of God's people has always been the desire to be "like all the nations" around them (1 Sam 8:5).
In Christ,
bmerr