Citing one example as to why one should refer to and rely on the King James Bible for the true meaning of the Word of God so as to have the meat of the word to expose the works of darkness in light of the real scriptures.
False teaching to expose: The Holy Spirit directly intercedes for the saints and aids them in prayer.
One source of this erroneous teaching; NIV:
Understandably, we can see why believers would accept this teaching, but let us declare this false teaching:
The Holy Spirit directly intervenes when we do not know what to pray by uttering groans that words cannot express. This has been used to validate using the gift of tongues as a prayer language with groans which words cannot express as verse 26 implies.
Now to discern this teaching and the scriptures being used from the NIV.
Proof of the meaning of God's words lost in translations is found in verse 27. How can the "he" who searches our hearts AND knows the mind of the Spirit, be "the Spirit" that intercedes for the saints AND "in according to the will of God"? The "he" cannot be "the Spirit" because the "he" is seperate from us in searching our hearts and seperate from the Spirit to know the mind of, so the "he" is another "Person" that intercedes for the saints AND in according to the will of God. It is bad grammar to say that the Spirit is the one interceding for us in verse 27.
When we turn to the King James Bible, by His grace, we shall read the true meaning of God's words which will expose the false teaching mentioned above as a work of darkness and see why Jesus is the "he" that intercedes for the saints AND "in according to the will of God".
By His grace, I hope that as we read the correct translation above, we can see the comparison and why we should rely on the King James Bible for the true meaning of God's words.
The term "itself" in verse 26 of the KJV in regards to the Spirit is declaring that the Holy Spirit is the means by which this intercession is being made. The verse declares that the Holy Spirit maketh intercession with groanings which cannot be uttered; hence no sound. So the blessed reader will wonder how then can the Holy Spirit intercede? The reader sees in verse 27 that the "he" which searcheth the hearts also knoweth the mind of the Spirit for it is "he" that intercedes for the saints in according to the will of God.
Verse 27 maintained the correct translation by keeping the pronoun "he" as being seperate from the Spirit in knowing the mind of as well as seperate from us in knowing our hearts.
So to the identity of the "he" being Jesus Christ.
Who searches the hearts?
The word of God searches the hearts. Bellow proves Jesus is the Word of God.
As Jesus is before the throne of grace, we can see why the job of intercession falls to Him in according to the will of God.
Notice how it is specified "the man Christ Jesus" as in the risen Saviour?
To remove all doubts, it is confirmed in Romans 8:34 further on down from Romans 8:26-27 of the reference in question as to where Jesus is and what He is doing there also.
It is the job of the Mediator to make intercessions for us as the Comforter is the means by which the Mediator does His work, thus the use of the term "itself" has been applied correctly as opposed to the term "Himself" in the NIV, implying a direct intercession being done by the Holy Spirit.
Now for all those wanting to believe that tongues is a gift given for prayer language, and thus would rather lean on the NIV over the King James Bible, do consider this truth.
So even before you ask Him, the Father knows, so what need is there for tongues as a prayer language? None.
Is it not comforting to know that whenever any believer is in a panic, and doesn't know what to pray for, God already knows? :godisgood:
The NIV has 1 Timothy 2:5 along with Romans 8:34 of its correct meaning, but because of the errors in Romans 8:26-27, they gloss over the contrariness in the NIV because they want to believe that the tongues they have which does not come with interpretation is from the Lord, and that it is the Holy Spirit that is interrupting them in their normal prayers to pray in "tongues" to aid them.
In any event, Matthew 6:5-8 has already proven that there is no need for tongues to serve as a prayer language as the King James has shown the correct translation as to how the Holy Spirit make these intercessions: indirectly, by just being in us as Our Comforter, while Jesus, Our ONLY Mediator, is the ONLY One making intercessions for us according to the will of God as Romans 8:26-27 of the KJV declares.
raying:
This is one example why I rely on the King James Bible to expose the works of darkness in light by the true scriptures. :thumbs:
False teaching to expose: The Holy Spirit directly intercedes for the saints and aids them in prayer.
One source of this erroneous teaching; NIV:
Romans 8: 26In the same way, the Spirit helps us in our weakness. We do not know what we ought to pray for, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groans that words cannot express. 27And he who searches our hearts knows the mind of the Spirit, because the Spirit intercedes for the saints in accordance with God's will. NIV
Understandably, we can see why believers would accept this teaching, but let us declare this false teaching:
The Holy Spirit directly intervenes when we do not know what to pray by uttering groans that words cannot express. This has been used to validate using the gift of tongues as a prayer language with groans which words cannot express as verse 26 implies.
Now to discern this teaching and the scriptures being used from the NIV.
Proof of the meaning of God's words lost in translations is found in verse 27. How can the "he" who searches our hearts AND knows the mind of the Spirit, be "the Spirit" that intercedes for the saints AND "in according to the will of God"? The "he" cannot be "the Spirit" because the "he" is seperate from us in searching our hearts and seperate from the Spirit to know the mind of, so the "he" is another "Person" that intercedes for the saints AND in according to the will of God. It is bad grammar to say that the Spirit is the one interceding for us in verse 27.
When we turn to the King James Bible, by His grace, we shall read the true meaning of God's words which will expose the false teaching mentioned above as a work of darkness and see why Jesus is the "he" that intercedes for the saints AND "in according to the will of God".
Romans 8: 26Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered. 27And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God. King James Bible
By His grace, I hope that as we read the correct translation above, we can see the comparison and why we should rely on the King James Bible for the true meaning of God's words.
The term "itself" in verse 26 of the KJV in regards to the Spirit is declaring that the Holy Spirit is the means by which this intercession is being made. The verse declares that the Holy Spirit maketh intercession with groanings which cannot be uttered; hence no sound. So the blessed reader will wonder how then can the Holy Spirit intercede? The reader sees in verse 27 that the "he" which searcheth the hearts also knoweth the mind of the Spirit for it is "he" that intercedes for the saints in according to the will of God.
Verse 27 maintained the correct translation by keeping the pronoun "he" as being seperate from the Spirit in knowing the mind of as well as seperate from us in knowing our hearts.
So to the identity of the "he" being Jesus Christ.
Who searches the hearts?
Hebrews 4: 12For the word of God is quick, and powerful, and sharper than any twoedged sword, piercing even to the dividing asunder of soul and spirit, and of the joints and marrow, and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart. 13Neither is there any creature that is not manifest in his sight: but all things are naked and opened unto the eyes of him with whom we have to do. 14Seeing then that we have a great high priest, that is passed into the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our profession. 15For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin. 16Let us therefore come boldly unto the throne of grace, that we may obtain mercy, and find grace to help in time of need.
The word of God searches the hearts. Bellow proves Jesus is the Word of God.
John 1: 1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2The same was in the beginning with God. 3All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. 4In him was life; and the life was the light of men.....14And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
As Jesus is before the throne of grace, we can see why the job of intercession falls to Him in according to the will of God.
1 Timothy 2:5For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
Notice how it is specified "the man Christ Jesus" as in the risen Saviour?
To remove all doubts, it is confirmed in Romans 8:34 further on down from Romans 8:26-27 of the reference in question as to where Jesus is and what He is doing there also.
Romans 8: 34Who is he that condemneth? It is Christ that died, yea rather, that is risen again, who is even at the right hand of God, who also maketh intercession for us.
It is the job of the Mediator to make intercessions for us as the Comforter is the means by which the Mediator does His work, thus the use of the term "itself" has been applied correctly as opposed to the term "Himself" in the NIV, implying a direct intercession being done by the Holy Spirit.
Now for all those wanting to believe that tongues is a gift given for prayer language, and thus would rather lean on the NIV over the King James Bible, do consider this truth.
Matthew 6: 5And when thou prayest, thou shalt not be as the hypocrites are: for they love to pray standing in the synagogues and in the corners of the streets, that they may be seen of men. Verily I say unto you, They have their reward. 6But thou, when thou prayest, enter into thy closet, and when thou hast shut thy door, pray to thy Father which is in secret; and thy Father which seeth in secret shall reward thee openly. 7But when ye pray, use not vain repetitions, as the heathen do: for they think that they shall be heard for their much speaking. 8Be not ye therefore like unto them: for your Father knoweth what things ye have need of, before ye ask him.
So even before you ask Him, the Father knows, so what need is there for tongues as a prayer language? None.
Is it not comforting to know that whenever any believer is in a panic, and doesn't know what to pray for, God already knows? :godisgood:
The NIV has 1 Timothy 2:5 along with Romans 8:34 of its correct meaning, but because of the errors in Romans 8:26-27, they gloss over the contrariness in the NIV because they want to believe that the tongues they have which does not come with interpretation is from the Lord, and that it is the Holy Spirit that is interrupting them in their normal prayers to pray in "tongues" to aid them.
In any event, Matthew 6:5-8 has already proven that there is no need for tongues to serve as a prayer language as the King James has shown the correct translation as to how the Holy Spirit make these intercessions: indirectly, by just being in us as Our Comforter, while Jesus, Our ONLY Mediator, is the ONLY One making intercessions for us according to the will of God as Romans 8:26-27 of the KJV declares.
This is one example why I rely on the King James Bible to expose the works of darkness in light by the true scriptures. :thumbs: