I am King James only for English readers and speakers because I hold to formal equivalence method of translation and to the Masoretic Hebrew Text and the Textus Receptis Greek text, but I am not opposed to the KJV being revised to more modern English as long as meaning and accuracy is not sacrificed in the process (retaining singular 2nd person [thee and thou] and 2nd person plural [ye and you].
{as a side note, I’m told that even in 1611 they did not use thee,thou and ye, even then it was archaic but they used them to maintain accuracy of singular vs plural}
Back to the OP: most of the KJV “revisions” ,such as the NKJV or the MEV, I have looked at have either seem to 1. Changed the source texts from the Masoretic or the TR and/or 2. Take too much liberty and use words that are not accurate to the Greek or Hebrew, IE they are not actually revising into modern English words but using entirely different words.
Could this be a result of influence for. Copyright laws? I know that are a certain amount of changes must be made to receive a new copyright, do you think this puts pressure on Translators to change words that do not necessarily need to be changed?
{as a side note, I’m told that even in 1611 they did not use thee,thou and ye, even then it was archaic but they used them to maintain accuracy of singular vs plural}
Back to the OP: most of the KJV “revisions” ,such as the NKJV or the MEV, I have looked at have either seem to 1. Changed the source texts from the Masoretic or the TR and/or 2. Take too much liberty and use words that are not accurate to the Greek or Hebrew, IE they are not actually revising into modern English words but using entirely different words.
Could this be a result of influence for. Copyright laws? I know that are a certain amount of changes must be made to receive a new copyright, do you think this puts pressure on Translators to change words that do not necessarily need to be changed?