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Dead In Sin 2.0

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
In a recently closed thread, several unresolved controversies emerged.

1) Does Dead in Sin mean the person is unable to understand and affirmatively respond to the spiritual milk of the gospel? Both the Calvinist and Arminian leaning posters claimed the answer was YES. I said scripture does not allow that view.

2) Next, the Doctrine of Original Sin was partly denied because the doctrine said those made sinners were guilty of Adam's sin. I believe scripture does not allow that view. No one is guilty of another's sin. But we suffer the consequences of another's sin, such as being made sinners.

3) Another take on Original Sin says since we "inherited" the guilt of Adam's sin, is that all people deserve punishment for Adam's sin. Again, I believe scripture precludes that view.

4) When God forms our human spirit within our physical bodies, we are brought forth spiritually into "Adam" or "the realm of darkness" and NOT "in Christ." And in this sinful state, we cannot do anything to merit our transfer out from the realm of darkness and into the God's kingdom.

Thus being spiritually dead means our human spirit is spiritually separated from God, but does NOT mean we are unable to hear and understand and respond to the gospel of Christ. We need no "enabling grace" such as the fictions of Irresistible Grace and Prevenient Grace.

Bottom line, Total Spiritual Inability is a fiction, thus the lost have the limited spiritual ability to hear, understand, and affirmatively respond to "spiritual milk" including the fundamentals of the gospel of Christ.
 
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