Featured Did Daniel Sinfully Accept Worship of Himself?

[QUOTE="Scripture More Accurately, post: 2686103, member: 17385"
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Did Daniel sinfully accept worship of himself?[/QUOTE]

Please tell us where scripture says the one being worshiped as a prophet is sinning.

 

Thank you for your informative and responsive post.

I agree, that according to NT revelation, people should not accept worship, and to do so is sin. And certainly the Law of the OT says people are not to worship any other god.

I think the word (Aramaic) translated "worshipped" might mean to pay homage to a man, not a god.

Therefore no sin. See Genesis 43:28 for example.

 

According to the "Englisman's Concordance, the form of the word is not exactly the same. The difference identifies homage to a person or worship of a god.

Here is the link:
Strong's Hebrew: 5457. סְגִד (segid) -- to do homage

 

Look at the list on the right hand side and note the "bolded" symbols are different for Daniel 2:46 than for the others.

Note also at the bottom of the right hand column, the 12 occurrences lists just one occurrence (the third one on the list) for our verb.

 

I do not possess any expertise on why several but not most scholars see the idea as homage to a person, rather than worship. They could be trying to avoid your surmise, Daniel allowed sin. But even if he did, it would be in ignorance, because scripture allowed paying homage to worthy people at that time.

 

The context is key, ". . . Then the king Nebuchadnezzar fell upon his face, and worshipped Daniel, and commanded that they should offer an oblation and sweet odours unto him. The king answered unto Daniel, and said, Of a truth it is, that your God is a God of gods, and a Lord of kings, and a revealer of secrets, seeing thou couldest reveal this secret. Then the king made Daniel a great man, . . ."

 

I would believe that if Daniel had sinned in the way it is assumed, God would have rebuked him or had punished him but because of the context, the king was honoring the God, Daniel represents for why the king was honoring the God of Daniel.

Romans 13:1Let every soul be subject unto the higher powers. For there is no power but of God: the powers that be are ordained of God. 2 Whosoever therefore resisteth the power, resisteth the ordinance of God: and they that resist shall receive to themselves damnation. 3 For rulers are not a terror to good works, but to the evil. Wilt thou then not be afraid of the power? do that which is good, and thou shalt have praise of the same: 4 For he is the minister of God to thee for good. But if thou do that which is evil, be afraid; for he beareth not the sword in vain: for he is the minister of God, a revenger to execute wrath upon him that doeth evil. 5 Wherefore ye must needs be subject, not only for wrath, but also for conscience sake. 6 For for this cause pay ye tribute also: for they are God's ministers, attending continually upon this very thing. 7 Render therefore to all their dues: tribute to whom tribute is due; custom to whom custom; fear to whom fear; honour to whom honour. KJV

 

You are assuming that the Hebrew "segid" must always be understood as in "worship" of the Living God. It can simply mean "to bow" to somone. The LXX uses the verb "προσεκύνησεν", which Liddle & Scotts Greek lexicons says, "of the Oriental fashion of prostrating oneself before kings and superiors". Which does not always have to mean in the sense of "Worshipping God". Words to have different meaning in their context. Like "θεός", which is used for The One True God of the Bible, and also for the devil (2 Cor 4:4), and Jesus also uses this term for human judges, John 10:34-35. You are overstating what actually happened in the Book of Danel, and using human "logic", without giving all of the facts

 

Please tell us where scripture says the one being worshiped as a prophet is sinning.[/QUOTE]

Jesus in Matthew 4:10, "Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and Him ONLY shalt thou serve."

 

and you know enough Aramaic to say that what you suggest is correct? I read in the Hebrew Bible, where the whole of Daniel is in Hebrew, as do the Jews use, and the word most certainly does also have the meaning "to bow", as people so do to our earthly kings and queens. The LXX uses "προσεκύνησεν", which I have shown can also mean "to bow". Your arguments is really moot, as it is a strawman one! as you assume that you know more than Daniel did!

 

then show how the meaning differs from what the Hebrew says?

I think that you are SO VERY WRONG, to write "Did Daniel sinfully accept worship of himself?", which is such an ARROGANT statement to make of one of the greatest OT Prophets! Your OP are arguments in posts show your ignorance of the actual facts, and your false defence of what YOU think is right! Be humble and admit that you are wrong, and move one. because you most certainly are 100% WRONG!!!