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Did God Divorce Israel II

Discussion in '2003 Archive' started by Istherenotacause, May 26, 2003.

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  1. Istherenotacause

    Istherenotacause New Member

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    Since some "gliche" has prevented me from viewing the last replies to my last post in the previous thread "Did God Divorce Israel ?", I've decided to re-open the discussion under this heading.

    If with everyone's patience, we may continue this discussion. Headcoveredlady, and Gavin, are two that replied since I asked the question,"If God actually divorced Israel for adultry,other than just giving her the "bill" of divorcement, which according to our judicial system is only a bill and not a law by due process, [and is also written in English which we are to understand the Bible in English, hence we are English speaking], then why does He say in Jer. 3:14,"Turn, O backsliding children, saith the LORD;

    **for I am married unto you**

    and I will take you one of a city, and two of a family, and I will bring you to Zion"

    It seems to me , by my understanding of the word "bill" that He never divorced Israel, but only sent out the decree of the intent of divorce, (since that is all a "bill" is, and not a law), if she did not repent and turn back to the LORD, hence, He saith, "for I am married unto you", meaning He is still married to her, not divorced, else the passage would read, [for I am "re-married" unto you.]

    I would love to see the responses to this question,prior and post, if it pleases the King, for I know it displeases the devil, whom I rather enjoy being at the least, a flea on his back which he cannot seem to scratch off and discard!

    In His Holy Service,

    Brother Rciky
     
    #1 Istherenotacause, May 26, 2003
  2. Headcoveredlady

    Headcoveredlady New Member

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    just in and out today, we have visitors. i asked my husband about this and his answer was no, God did not dovorce Israel.
     
    #2 Headcoveredlady, May 28, 2003
  3. Istherenotacause

    Istherenotacause New Member

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    Now that is scriptural! Your husband is a very smart man. So, and not to bleed over from another thread on divorce and remarriage, divorce is never allowed by the Lord's example, only by hard-hearted men.

    Thanks for the reply, I wish I could have seen the other replies to the first attempt to discuss this topic, you're right, it is much needed in BB.com.

    In His Holy Service,

    Brother Ricky
     
    #3 Istherenotacause, May 28, 2003
  4. Tonya R

    Tonya R New Member

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    Istherenotacause, the following is copied verbatim from my reply on the Is Divorce a Sin thread:

    istherenotacause,
    I appreciate your honesty in admitting that you didn't really look over the article that well.
    As to you objections, God fearing christians know that the bible can't contradict itself.. so I offer up this for you to ponder:

    Hosea 2:2 also shows that God’s divorce meant Israel was no longer God’s wife, saying to her,2 Contend with your mother [Israel], contend, for she is not my wife, and I am not her husband;

    And from Divorce and Remarriage here is a quote:

    Just something to think on.....
     
    #4 Tonya R, May 28, 2003
  5. Istherenotacause

    Istherenotacause New Member

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    {1166} l["B; — ba`al, baw-al'; a primitive root; to be master; hence, (as
    denominative from 1167) to marry: — have dominion (over), be
    husband, marry(-ried, X wife). click to see {1167}


    {1167} l["B" — ba`al, bah'-al; from 1166; a master; hence, a husband, or
    (figuratively) owner (often used with another noun in
    modifications of this latter sense): — + archer, + babbler, + bird,
    captain, chief man, + confederate, + have to do, + dreamer, those to
    whom it is due, + furious, those that are given to it, great, + hairy,
    he that hath it, have, + horseman, husband, lord, man, + married,
    master, person, + sworn, they of. click to see {1166}

    As anyone can see from the Strong's Concordance, the King James Translators are right again. It is way too far fetched to think that the word "married" means anything else. The usage could be considered "lord" but that too would still be in line with Sarah calling Abraham, "lord", they were MARRIED y'know!

    In each use in the #1167 you'll see that each one is used in conjunction with married.

    In His Holy Service,

    Brother Ricky
     
    #5 Istherenotacause, May 28, 2003
  6. Headcoveredlady

    Headcoveredlady New Member

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    I am still very busy with my guest, but I wanted to add one more thing that my husband said. He said, "God did not divorce Israel, they are His children, He does not divorce children." Then he said, "We are His bride, that is different."
     
    #6 Headcoveredlady, May 30, 2003
  7. Istherenotacause

    Istherenotacause New Member

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    Maybe your husband should explain Jeremiah 3 then.

    In Christ,

    Brother Ricky
     
    #7 Istherenotacause, May 30, 2003
  8. Tonya R

    Tonya R New Member

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    Istherenotacause:
    Did you adhere to dispensationalism? I think that is the belief that God will return or restore the actual and visible Israel.
     
    #8 Tonya R, Jun 3, 2003
  9. Grasshopper

    Grasshopper Active Member
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    The focus of the Olivet Discourse is the destruction of Jerusalem at the second coming of Christ; Revelation simply expands on the Olivet Discourse. Not only is Israel's destruction the focus of Revelation but her destruction is set forth in an interesting fashion. She is being punished for adultery. In the Old Testament, Israel was considered the wife of Jehovah God.

    Jeremiah 31:31 (NKJV) "Behold, the days are coming, says the LORD, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah; not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt, My covenant which they broke, though I was a husband to them, says the LORD.

    Often the prophets mentioned the marital relationship between God and Israel. But Israel chased after foreign gods and was consequently accused of spiritual adultery. Finally Israel killed God's Son while crying, "We have no king but Caesar. His blood be on us and on our children." Revelation represents God's divorce decree against Israel as His unfaithful wife for spiritual adultery. In Revelation 4 We see God seated upon a judicial throne. God's throne is mentioned in eighteen of Revelation's twenty-two chapters. In fact, `throne' occurs 62 times in the New Testament; 47 occurrences are in Revelation. There is a strong judicial undercurrent in Revelation.

    In Revelation 5 God has in his hand a seven-sealed scroll which represents God's divorce decree against Israel. In Deuteronomy 24, God's law required that a writing of divorcement be presented in case of divorce. Here God presents the divorce papers to Israel. The scroll, which is written on front and back, reflects the imagery of Ezekiel 2 where Ezekiel is handed a scroll that is written on front and back. In Ezekiel 2 this scroll has to do with lamentation and mourning upon Jerusalem. These two scrolls in Ezekiel and Revelation seem to be related.

    The seven seals of the scroll reflect the seven-fold judgement of God that He warned Israel about in Leviticus 26:24: "then I also will walk contrary to you, and I will punish you yet seven times for your sins." The seven-fold judgements in Leviticus have a strong influence in the judgement language of Revelation throughout the book.

    God's prescribed punishment for adultery is death by stoning (Leviticus 20). In Revelation 16:21 we read, "And great hail from heaven fell upon men, each hailstone about the weight of a talent. Men blasphemed God because of the plague of the hail, since that plague was exceedingly great." Israel is being stoned to death as an adulterous wife.

    Israel is not only Jehovah's wife in the Old Testament, but she is also to serve Him as a priest. Thus in Revelation, Israel is represented as a harlot dressed if priestly garments. Since she is a priest, another Old Testament law comes into effect: 'The daughter of any priest, if she profanes herself by playing the harlot, she profanes her father. She shall be burned with fire." (Leviticus 21:9). We see Israel being burned with fire in

    Revelation 17:16: "And the ten horns which you saw on the beast, these will hate the harlot, make her desolate and naked, eat her flesh and burn her with fire."

    Having legally disposed of Israel at the end of Revelation, God takes a new bride, the church of Jesus Christ. In Revelation 21 after Israel's death we see a city coming down out of heaven adorned as a spotless virgin bride for her husband. Then we read of the marriage supper of the Lamb. This New Jerusalem is the church according to Hebrews 12:22.

    Thus the theme of Revelation is the execution of God's divorce decree against Israel for her harlotries and adulterous relationships with other gods. She is put to death and God turns to take a new bride, which is the church, the spiritual Israel of God.


    http://www.preteristarchive.com/Preterism/curtis-david_p_02.html
     
    #9 Grasshopper, Jun 5, 2003
  10. Istherenotacause

    Istherenotacause New Member

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    Grasshopper, wouldn't that make the heathen nations and the unconverted Gentiles also under this judgement? Then what about the following verse? They don't indicate the "destruction" of Israel, but instead give evidence of her repentence.Jeremiah 17:14 Heal me, O LORD, and I shall be healed; save me, and I shall be saved: for thou art my praise.
    Jeremiah 23:6 In his days Judah shall be saved, and Israel shall dwell safely: and this is his name whereby he shall be called, THE LORD OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS.
    Jeremiah 30:7 Alas! for that day is great, so that none is like it: it is even the time of Jacob’s trouble; but he shall be saved out of it.
    Jeremiah 33:16 In those days shall Judah be saved, and Jerusalem shall dwell safely: and this is the name wherewith she shall be called, The LORD our righteousness.
     
    #10 Istherenotacause, Jun 5, 2003
  11. Tonya R

    Tonya R New Member

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    Grasshopper,
    Didn't the destruction of Jerusalem fulfill this prophecy?
    I'm no eschatologist but I'm under the impression that when Jesus said "no man knows the day or hour but my Father" that this word "knows" can have the meaning of "makes known"..
    Where we have often applied this to the end, it can possibly mean the end of the Jerusalem state and that the Father did make known to the christians when the destruction was getting near. I believe in 1 John there is a warning that the hour was at hand.

    Tonya
     
    #11 Tonya R, Jun 5, 2003
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