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If both version did...
Why wouldn't they be considered to be equal to the KJV for English translations?
The New Testament of the 1560 Geneva Bible is said to have been translated from the 1550 edition of the Greek New Testament edited by Stephanus.
The 1560 Geneva Bible is in the KJV-only view's line of good Bibles. KJV-only advocates seem to want to link the KJV with the popular and loved Geneva Bible. Benson Bobrick maintained that the Geneva Bible "paid meticulous attention to the Greek and Hebrew originals" (Wide as the Waters, p. 175). Backus asserted that “their main Greek text for the New Testament was the 1550 text of Stephanus” (Reformed Roots, p. 13). Gergely Juhasz suggested that the Geneva translators “consulted the Complutensian Polyglot, Robert Estienne’s 1550 edition of the Greek New Testament, Theodore de Beze’s 1566 [1557] Latin translation of the New Testament, Sante Pagnini’s 1528 Latin translation of the Old Testamnet, and Bomberg’s Third Rabbinic Bible edited by Sebastian Munster” (Hamlin, KJB after, p. 112). The Geneva Bible translators could only consult the 1557 Latin New Testament of Beza since the second edition that included a Greek text had not yet been printed [1565].
Still curious why those 2 Bibles not considered to be just as "inspired" as KJV is by the KJVO Christians?
If any translation can be regarded as "inspired," there would seem to be no sound, scriptural basis for not accepting the 1560 Geneva Bible as having the same inspiration as the KJV.
Since the KJV is a revision of the pre-1611 English Bibles such as Tyndale's and the Geneva Bible, by what different process was the KJV supposed to obtain some quality or characteristic that was not already present in those earlier English Bibles?
The actual eclectic blend of Greek manuscripts that underly the AV1611 translation was lost and does not exist.
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The actualy eclectic blend of Greek manuscripts that underly the AV1611 translation was lost and does not exist.
I think it is very simply that some believe that there cannot be two (or more) sets of 'inspired' words, which kinda' makes sense. And the Tyndale (NT), Geneva Bible, and the KJV are quite different at some particular verses*; therefore, they cannot ALL be the only perfect translation. Things that are different are not the same. They could be good translations, but not perfect. Only one English text can represent God's words perfectly translated**.... Still curious why those 2 Bibles not considered to be just as "inspired" as KJV is by the KJVO Christians?