Bluefalcon
Member
Num. 20:21 seems to be incompatible with Dt. 2:29. In Numbers, the Edomites did not give Israel passage, but in Deuteronomy it appears to be saying that they did. What is the best explanation of this apparent difficulty?
Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!
Thanks for your nice reply. About the Edomites allowing the Israelites to pass through their land, Dt. 2:28-29 relates Moses' urging of the king of Heshbon, "Only let us pass through on foot -- as the descendants of Esau, who live in Seir, and the Moabites, who live in Ar, did for us -- until we cross the Jordan into the land the LORD our God is giving us." The problem is that in Numbers it's pretty clear that Edom came out against the Israelistes armed for war and did not let them pass through their land. Or is there a problem in the translation of the Dt. passage?Originally posted by Eliyahu:
I don't find Edomites allowed the passage for Israelites. Dt 1:22 is talking about the dispatch of the spies. You may be talking about Dt 23:7, but it never says Edomites allowed passage and therefore there is nothing contradictory each other.
So what is the lesson we should learn from the author's literary technique? In other words, why was the sending of spies by God's own command in Numbers, but the fault of the people in Deuteronomy?Originally posted by Deacon:
Initially it appears the event timeline has been collapsed in Deuteronomy.