Divorced pastors -Part II

[Salty]

Interesting discussion going on about a pastor who is divorced.

I would like this thread to go in a different direction.

NOTE - This discussion is NOT about whether a divorced man should be a pastor or not.

My question is: When considering a church to pastor -
Should a candidate voluntarily mention he is divorced?
Should he give an explanation?
At what point should he inform the church - Initial contact, later - only if asked???

Suppose a church says "must be in compliance of I Tim 3."
The passage states: "A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife,
vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;"

But the church does NOT specifically say that a divorce man is not qualified.

So a candidate states - "I am complying with I Tim -3:2 - I only have one (legal) wife.
The courts have declared that my first marriage is dissolved.

Does this man have a responsibility to inform the prospective church of his status. (or is this a loophole?)

One other thing - Is an annulment the same as a divorce - or should it be considered as "never happening"

 

[rlvaughn]

Interesting discussion going on about a pastor who is divorced.

I would like this thread to go in a different direction.

NOTE - This discussion is NOT about whether a divorced man should be a pastor or not.

My question is: When considering a church to pastor -
Should a candidate voluntarily mention he is divorced?
Should he give an explanation?
At what point should he inform the church - Initial contact, later - only if asked???

Anyone who is qualified enough to be a pastor ought to be aware that divorce and remarriage is an issue in some churches and should be straightforward and forthcoming in the matter. Better to get it out of the way up front than causing bigger problems down the road.

Suppose a church says "must be in compliance of I Tim 3."
The passage states: "A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife,
vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;"

But the church does NOT specifically say that a divorce man is not qualified.

So a candidate states - "I am complying with I Tim -3:2 - I only have one (legal) wife.
The courts have declared that my first marriage is dissolved.

Does this man have a responsibility to inform the prospective church of his status. (or is this a loophole?)

Honesty should be the standard of the day, not looking for a loophole.

One other thing - Is an annulment the same as a divorce - or should it be considered as "never happening"

In my understanding, annulment is legally different from divorce. I don't know the technicalities of getting an annulment, but I'd say if the marriage was consummated it is morally the same as divorce, whether or not it is legally.

 

[HankD]

Interesting discussion going on about a pastor who is divorced.

I would like this thread to go in a different direction.

NOTE - This discussion is NOT about whether a divorced man should be a pastor or not.

My question is: When considering a church to pastor -
Should a candidate voluntarily mention he is divorced?
Should he give an explanation?
At what point should he inform the church - Initial contact, later - only if asked???

Suppose a church says "must be in compliance of I Tim 3."
The passage states: "A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife,
vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;"

But the church does NOT specifically say that a divorce man is not qualified.

So a candidate states - "I am complying with I Tim -3:2 - I only have one (legal) wife.
The courts have declared that my first marriage is dissolved.

Does this man have a responsibility to inform the prospective church of his status. (or is this a loophole?)

One other thing - Is an annulment the same as a divorce - or should it be considered as "never happening"

Similarly, some would say that Paul saying "the husband of one wife" means monogamy in the sense of - one wife at a time - it's an anti-polygamy verse.
e.g. Roman culture of Paul's time was monogamous but allowed for concubines.

So a man under Roman law reading this epistle with only one wife but with active concubinage would be disqualified.

If this be the case then in our culture a remarried divorced man as you have noted would be a candidate for the office of pastor.

 

[rlvaughn]

e.g. Roman culture of Paul's time was monogamous but allowed for concubines.

Divorce was common as well. Don't remember the source -- maybe Gibbon -- but I remember reading that in Rome they married to divorce and divorced to marry. Stanford University professor Susan Treggiari describes it as "no-fault divorce" in her book Roman Marriage.

 

[rlvaughn]

In my understanding, annulment is legally different from divorce. I don't know the technicalities of getting an annulment, but I'd say if the marriage was consummated it is morally the same as divorce, whether or not it is legally.

I looked up some of the grounds for annulment in our state (these laws will vary by state). Here are two examples:

Courts may grant an annulment of marriage in Texas if a party was permanently impotent at the time of marriage for physical or mental reasons, the other party did not know about the impotency, and the petitioner has not cohabitated with the other party since learning of the impotency.

Courts can grant an annulment in marriages in Texas if there is evidence one party used fraud, duress, or force to have the petitioner enter into the marriage and the petitioner has not cohabitated with the person since learning of the fraud or since being released from the force.

Annulment of Marriage in Texas (not an official government site)

 

[Rob_BW]

Divorce was common as well. Don't remember the source -- maybe Gibbon -- but I remember reading that in Rome they married to divorce and divorced to marry. Stanford University professor Susan Treggiari describes it as "no-fault divorce" in her book Roman Marriage.

In Rome, the pater familias could direct his adult children to marry, or divorce and remarry ,especially if the match would improve his position in the clientela system.

 

[Wesley Briggman]

1Ti 3:2 KJV - A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;

I would appreciate the Greek scholars, who often contribute to this bulletin-board, sharing the source of ancient text supporting the "one wife at a time" doctrine related to 1 Tim 3:2.

 

[Pastor Sam]

Interesting discussion going on about a pastor who is divorced.

I would like this thread to go in a different direction.

NOTE - This discussion is NOT about whether a divorced man should be a pastor or not.

My question is: When considering a church to pastor -
Should a candidate voluntarily mention he is divorced?
Should he give an explanation?
At what point should he inform the church - Initial contact, later - only if asked???

Suppose a church says "must be in compliance of I Tim 3."
The passage states: "A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife,
vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;"

But the church does NOT specifically say that a divorce man is not qualified.

So a candidate states - "I am complying with I Tim -3:2 - I only have one (legal) wife.
The courts have declared that my first marriage is dissolved.

Does this man have a responsibility to inform the prospective church of his status. (or is this a loophole?)

One other thing - Is an annulment the same as a divorce - or should it be considered as "never happening"

Every church I have Pastored since my divorce I have told them the whole story. I candidated at a church and the folks loved me and when I meet with the deacons they said that they wanted to bring me up for a vote. I told them that I first had to explain what had happen with my ex-wife. After I told them they said they would give me a call in a couple of days and let me know what they decide. I never heard from them and so two weeks later I called back and they said they were going in another direction.

My last church I decided to share it before I candidated and I told the Deacons in a Deacons meeting. They said they would have me candidate and then ask the church. After I preached for a month they decided to call me. I stayed eight years until I retired.

 

[Judith]

Interesting discussion going on about a pastor who is divorced.

I would like this thread to go in a different direction.

NOTE - This discussion is NOT about whether a divorced man should be a pastor or not.

My question is: When considering a church to pastor -
Should a candidate voluntarily mention he is divorced?
Should he give an explanation?
At what point should he inform the church - Initial contact, later - only if asked???

Suppose a church says "must be in compliance of I Tim 3."
The passage states: "A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife,
vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;"

But the church does NOT specifically say that a divorce man is not qualified.

So a candidate states - "I am complying with I Tim -3:2 - I only have one (legal) wife.
The courts have declared that my first marriage is dissolved.

Does this man have a responsibility to inform the prospective church of his status. (or is this a loophole?)

One other thing - Is an annulment the same as a divorce - or should it be considered as "never happening"

Actually the Tim passage does not say "husband of one wife." The Greek says a "one woman man." BIG DIFFERENCE! A man could be married only once and still not be a one woman man. The passage is dealing with his moral character and ability to lead, not how many wives he has had although more than one wife could be a problem, depending.. That being said if a man has been divorced, whether married again or not, he does need to inform the whole church IF the church votes for a pastor. If it is only the elders who choose the pastor then only they need to know. They need to evaluate him in light of the Tim passage according to the Greek, not the English. Keep in mind he is to be an example to the church. Also when did this divorce happen, before or after he was saved? What was the reason? Did he do all he could to reconcile his marriage? There are lots of questions in this. Can he now meet the qualifications of the passage in being a one woman man? In other words no other woman catches his eye or attention and that needs to be proven. Yes an annulment is the same as a divorce.

 

[agedman]

Actually the Tim passage does not say "husband of one wife." The Greek says a "one woman man." BIG DIFFERENCE! A man could be married only once and still not be a one woman man. The passage is dealing with his moral character and ability to lead, not how many wives he has had although more than one wife could be a problem, depending.. That being said if a man has been divorced, whether married again or not, he does need to inform the whole church IF the church votes for a pastor. If it is only the elders who choose the pastor then only they need to know. They need to evaluate him in light of the Tim passage according to the Greek, not the English. Keep in mind he is to be an example to the church. Also when did this divorce happen, before or after he was saved? What was the reason? Did he do all he could to reconcile his marriage? There are lots of questions in this. Can he now meet the qualifications of the passage in being a one woman man? In other words no other woman catches his eye or attention and that needs to be proven. Yes an annulment is the same as a divorce.

I’m not certain that I agree with your Greek work, but I will leave that for someone else.

Ultimately, a divorced person is disqualified from the pastorate.