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Are BOTH OT/NT books just as inspired/infallible, or does the OT justhave "partial revealtion/inspiration?"
Are BOTH OT/NT books just as inspired/infallible, or does the OT justhave "partial revealtion/inspiration?"
Are BOTH OT/NT books just as inspired/infallible, or does the OT justhave "partial revealtion/inspiration?"
Why?...................
based upon the various posters here, it seems that some do not see the OT as equally inspired as the NT, as they refer to it being"God accomadating Himself/progressive revelation/pagan sources etc"!
Gentile members are not obligated. Jewish Christians are obligated.
There is not one verse in the NT which commands Jews to ignore Torah. Acts teaches that Jewish Christians continued Temple worship. Historical evidence in that Jewish Christians continued Sabbath worship in local synagogues until they were excommunicated during the Bar Kochba Rebellion.
> Jesus declared all food clean.
This invalidated the 613 statements of the Law?
Which are reinstated in the NT?
Do you regard ONLY the Torah as inspired/reveltion from God?
Do you hold that Jews saved by Law, gentiles by grace?
That the law still in effect under new Covenant same way as it was under the old?
Israel in this dispensation are not saved. Psalm 69:27-28 and Rom. 11:7-10.
individual jews are saved by the grace of God thru the Cross, same way as gentiles are today!
its just that isreal the nation/peoples still ahve a reckoning with the Lord in end days, time of jacobs folly, when God will turn to making them ready asa people to meet and receive Jesus as ther king at His returning!
In the scriptures, Israel is never called the Church, the Body of Christ (and vice versa).