Does God alter His own will at times??

I came across these scriptures, which I am familar with but never really noticed a certain significance to them till now.

FIRST : I believe that God has established all that will be from the beginning.
However, I will use the scriptures below to establish the question presented in the OP

So...Here are two sets of scripture that gave me pause, and wanted to ask what you all think.

Now here we see that David is declaring the ungodly men will not live out half of their [intended] life span because David then speaks to the converse of that statement that he will trust in God implying he will live out all of his days.

Then this one:

Here we have two distinct declarations by God.
One declaration by God is that Hezekiah WILL die and not live and for him to get his affairs in order because he was sick unto death (about to die).
Then...
God sends the prophet Isaiah BACK to say a second THUS SAITH THE LORD (declaration from God) that Hezekiah will NOW live 15 more years because God heard his prayer and seen his tears.

Notice God didn't tell Hezekiah to do anything or call unto Him that God would heal him. God said he was going to die and then God spins the prophet around and says "I have seen and heard you and will grant you 15 more years of life".

Just curious as to your thoughts. Does God alter His own will at times and for His good pleasure since it appears the prayers and tears of Hezekiah moved the heart of God to change His original decree that he WILL die and to prepare for it.
And the first shows God can and does cut the lives of even the wicked in half showing they will not live out their pre-designed life spans.

I have some of my own thoughts on it but want to here from you all...

What say ye??

Edited In>>>I know there will be debate here over this - which is why I placed it in the debate section (but for me I want to see peoples thoughts concerning it)

 

I agree the Psalm to which I stated Davids comment was not a 'universal inditement', but I was simply establishing that God determind the extent of life that every person was to live and then we also see that God can cut it down (to whatever amount but here it speaks to half) from His originally planned or purposed concerning that persons life.

As I said just looking to see peoples comments before I spout off at the mouth, to see it from multiple perspectives. I have my own but I would like to see interaction concerning the OP first.

 

Yes, I have many commentaries at my disposal both Calvinist and non-Calvinist.
But My question is directed to you and what you think.
If John Piper was here I would welcome his thoughts and insights as well but since he is not, I welcome your comments.



>>>EDITED IN<<<
Piper makes a very inaccurate assumption regarding an 'implict exception' and worse yet that Hezekiah also had to'repent'.

If we observe the prayer of Hezekiah, we note he does not repent but actaully makes his plead to Lord because he WAS upright before the Lord.
He goes on and speaks of this being a historic point view concerning the text but I can find nothing to affirm this, especially in light of plain text dismissing his thoughts of God "implying (and never actaully stating) that Hezekiah must pray and repent to turn death away from him.

Another problem he has compiled to himself is that the the death coming was due to some sin (thus the need to repent) and so what Isaiah was actaully giving was a warning and not a declaration. But this is not supported by the context of the text. Hezekiah did not repent and actaully pleaded his cause due to being aright before God.

Although I must admit further down is speaking to the point of "God's changing His mind"; he gives a great renedering the Non-Calvinist can use concerning the Calvinistic understanding of Gods will. The explaination can be used in the same context regarding salvation and mans responsiblity of accepting or rejecting revealed truth.

the last part was an aside and not really part of this conversation, so I appologize for that.
In short I found he had some misguided notions that are most definately presuppositions brought into the text and has not scriptural basis to even be apart of his explanation.

 

Of course...but you could give at least a short answer concerning WHAT Piper holds to. I just don't want this to be commentary quotation posting marathon. :wavey:

 

I didn't actually lay out my thoughts Sky. I just gave some verses and contentions. If you note I reserved my 'thoughts' for later as I wanted to see what others had to say concerning it.

I agree that Christ didn't know ALL things as He himself stated the Father knew something that the Son did not - The time of HIS (Jesus) return or 2nd coming. Though I don't hold that Jesus couldn't know but that He set aside or didn't use certain divine aspects that He may be the perfect example of living a God centered life - INCLUDING being led and empowered by the Holy Spirit. This is why we have a high priest that knows our weaknesses and that He knows (personaly) the way out of temptations.-----Side Issue ------- Back to the OP

I am refering to God and His plan for every mans life (from birth to death). He knows our rising up, He directs our steps, He knows every hair on our head (or lack thereof) He knows us before birth, and He knows the day of our death.

So in that foreknowing how do these scriptures fit those contexts. Can or does God change His will, without obvisouly changing His will? Would this mean there is the potential for two types of wills (1. determinded from creation how all things will paly out throughout unto the end / 2. Permissive where God can do as He likes inside the construct of His own determinded will [also referred to as the secret will]).

Just some more question to hopefully get the ball rolling.

So far ScarletO and John Piper has wieghed in on the subject of the OP.

Anyone else?

 

Ok...so then what is the difference between His eternal decree and temporal decree with regard to scripture.

I guess what I'm asking is:
Once God decrees something is it not set??
The life of man and his death is something that was decreed from eternity (past) so how is it to be modified in His temporal will??

That almost sounds like God established only certain or spesific things in His Eternal decree and is moving in time with His temporal decrees to bring forth the outcome He wanted in His Eternal Decreeing. (referencing back to my in #10 of permissive and Eternal Wills - or- something different)