Originally posted by Tim:
I agree with Tony's comment about using Jesus' quote in Luke 4 (of Isa. 61) as a poor example. Jesus first presented the good news, the bad news was given later, but not thousands of years later, and the rejection of the gospel led to the judgment, so the two directly relate. There is no significant gap in Isa 61:1-3.
Let me quote a portion of this:
Isaiah 61:1-5 saiah 61:1 The Spirit of the Lord GOD is upon me, Because the LORD has anointed me To bring good news to the afflicted; He has sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, To proclaim liberty to captives And freedom to prisoners; 2 To proclaim the favorable year of the LORD And the day of vengeance of our God; To comfort all who mourn, 3 To grant those who mourn in Zion, Giving them a garland instead of ashes, The oil of gladness instead of mourning, The mantle of praise instead of a spirit of fainting. So they will be called oaks of righteousness, The planting of the LORD, that He may be glorified. 4 Then they will rebuild the ancient ruins, They will raise up the former devastations; And they will repair the ruined cities, The desolations of many generations. 5 Strangers will stand and pasture your flocks, And foreigners will be your farmers and your vinedressers.
As you can see, it is not as simple as "good stuff/bad stuff." The only negative line in the passage is the one in the middle of verse 3, after Christ stops. The best part is actually after that. It talks of the restoration of the nation to the land. Passages like this are unequivocally premillennial when read for what they say apart from precommitments to certain positions. The fact is that Christ stopped before "The day of vengeance of our God" because that was the dividing line between his first and second advent. Reading this passage, you would think the "day of vengeance of our God" was immediate. Yet we know from the text and from history that that was not the case. This is a prime passage that disproves your contention when read in its normal state. These prophecies simply have not been fulfilled unless you radically change the meaning of the words and attach to them something the "normal sense" won't bear.
The problem with that analogy is that it makes the prophet a conveyor of misleading information. If he's giving a statement about events and he associates them together, when actually they are millenia apart, it's totally misleading.
Not at all. Again, the above passage, quoted by Christ, shows this a misplaced conception. I can't see how this stands up at all.
But first, how about yet another prophecy that declares that Christ's reign will begin after His first advent rather than waiting for His second:
Dan. 2:36-45
This passage cannot be interpreted in isolation. When we say Christ's kingdom must be future, it is not because we desire it to be future. I am sure we all wish it was now. But there is the sticky matter of the text that we must deal with.
But the text itself says that the kingdom of Christ "will crush and put an end to all these kingdoms." That is clearly not true. The post mills and amills believes the kingdom comes in over time, in fact, that we are working to bring in the kingdom. The premills say that the kingdom comes all at once. The text here agrees with the premills.
--Pardon me, but this is an embarrassment to the Biblical text and to ancient and modern history!
Only from your {mis??)understanding. To me, the embarrassment to the text is when we take the clear words and say that they really mean something else. The embarrassment to history is when we say that the kingdom of Christ is currently here, in spite of the reality that we all live every day. What kind of kingdom is this? It sure doesn't sound like what the OT prophesies that the kingdom will be.
Why can't we read the text in the normal sense of the word, and accept Jesus teaching that he established His heavenly kingdom at His first advent?
Because the first will not allow the second. The normal sense of the words leads us to believe that Jesus will establish his kingdom in the future. Consider you question here in light of Acts 1:6 where the disciples ask "Is this the time you are going to restore the kingdom to Israel?"
Notice the implications:
1. The kingdom was not yet there, i.e., his birth or death/resurrection did not bring it in.
2. The disciples expected a literal earthly kingdom (cf. Acts 3:19-21), just as the premills do. And they expected it to be restored to the nation of Israel.
3. Christ did absolutely nothing to dissuade them, to correct their misunderstanding, or to tell them that they were in the kingdom. Why?? It must because because they weren't. His answer shows that the kingdom was not yet there and he would not divulge to them when it would come because it was not for them to know. It sounds eerily like "No one knows the day or the hour except the Father." And in fact, were it not for precommitments to other positions, that would seem so obvious as to make one laugh.
Again, the text mitigates against your position. It simply cannot stand the weight of solid exegesis.
So when do you think the kingdom started??