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Final Authority before 1611?

natters

New Member
Her analogy does not make sense. "kin" does not explain how a "final authority" is chosen, nor why it is replaced. Period.
 

Trotter

<img src =/6412.jpg>
Michelle wrote:
The two Bible's that you are implying are kin (TR based, vs. W/H based)- are not kin at all. One is the pure stream, the other corrupt. Many are telling us we must accept the stranger as our true kin. Even though that stranger is dangerous and corrupt.
And just where do you, or anyone else, get the authority to make the decision of what is and what is not corrupt? The same place you get that the KJV is perfect?

For your information, most translations now use the Majority text, not W/H.
To blatantly and honestly answer your question how do we know which one is our final authority?: It is by the Holy Spirit of God. John 16,17
Same here, sister. Funny, we both mention the Holy Spirit, but I say that He is my final authority, but you say He shows you yours. Someone is wrong, and it ain't me.

In Christ,
Trotter
 

Trotter

<img src =/6412.jpg>
Michelle wrote:
You may not like her analogy, or you may see it in a different way, but you implied something nasty of her (ever so subtely) to destroy her character and her point. The flaw in the analogy only came in when you twisted the angalogy and attempted to slander her.
You are the only one belly-aching. I saw no attack at all in Natters extension of the analogy. In fact, Natters really brought out some good points. I guess since they didn't agree with Theology by Michelle, they just HAVE to be wrong, huh?

By elevating one line of man, for whatever reason (be it skin color, size, shape, whatever), you would bring about racism and prejudice. Just like elevating one translation over and above all others brings about the same type of things (arrogance, legalism, prejudice).

In Christ,
Trotter
 

David J

New Member
What! No KJVO can show me the perfect bible that 100% agrees with the KJV before 1611! How odd! And I thought that Psalm 12:6-7 by KJVO interpretation would prove that the words of the KJV have always existed perfectly intact.
 

HankD

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
God can't provide for us his perfect word, there is no way, because of human fallacy in copying and translating. But man is expected to be perfect in all he does, and says.
He could if He wanted to do so but so far no KJVO can tell us which Revision/Edition (Cambridge, Oxford, Nelson (1611-1853)) of the KJV is the "perfect" one.

He could make us "perfectly" sinless in the here and now if He wanted to do so.

HankD
 

HankD

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Where was the "final authority" in 1610 and prior?
Probably the Latin Vulgate because the Church of Rome made similar claims for it as do the KJVO saying that it was written in the language of heaven, superior to the Greek and Hebrew.

Now that I think about it, they also committed atrocities upon those who disagreed (especially anabaptists).

Yes, and it also contained the Apocrypha like the KJV First Edition. King James sent you to jail (or should I sat gaol) for 1 year if you complained about it. That's if you were lucky otherwise off with your ears!

yes it's much more than a coincidence, it must have been the Latin Vulgate.

HankD
 

michelle

New Member
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Her analogy does not make sense. "kin" does not explain how a "final authority" is chosen, nor why it is replaced. Period.
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Yes it does. Church (family) HISTORY.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

michelle

New Member
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And just where do you, or anyone else, get the authority to make the decision of what is and what is not corrupt? The same place you get that the KJV is perfect?
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By the authority of the scriptures we already have, and have had and by the Holy Spirit of truth. This is how we can tell, and the corruptions are EVIDENT.


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For your information, most translations now use the Majority text, not W/H.
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For your information, most versions still use the W/H text, to which is now renamed the Majority Text. It is still the same methods and the same corrupt texts.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

michelle

New Member
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Same here, sister. Funny, we both mention the Holy Spirit, but I say that He is my final authority, but you say He shows you yours. Someone is wrong, and it ain't me.
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How is it that one determines it is the Holy Spirit of truth, if it is not from, or based upon the truth of the scriptures? How can one recieve final authority from a spirit, and determine that that spirit is the Holy Spirit, if not by the words of God?

Romans 10

13. For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.
14. How then shall they call on him in whom they have not believed? and how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? and how shall they hear without a preacher?
15. And how shall they preach, except they be sent? as it is written, How beautiful are the feet of them that preach the gospel of peace, and bring glad tidings of good things!
16. But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Esaias saith, Lord, who hath believed our report?
17. So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God.
18. But I say, Have they not heard? Yes verily, their sound went into all the earth, and their words unto the ends of the world.


Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

NaasPreacher (C4K)

Well-Known Member
Originally posted by michelle:



For your information, most versions still use the W/H text, to which is now renamed the Majority Text. It is still the same methods and the same corrupt texts.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
Thank you sister, for about 25 years I have been under the impression that the Minority Texts were the basis for W/H.
 

michelle

New Member
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By elevating one line of man, for whatever reason (be it skin color, size, shape, whatever), you would bring about racism and prejudice. Just like elevating one translation over and above all others brings about the same type of things (arrogance, legalism, prejudice).
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I didn't bring it about, Natters did, and did it unnecessarily. He subtley was implying a nasty thing about Granny, and had nothing whatsoever to do with the analogy, to which is also what you are doing. This is being done mean-spiritedly to attempt to destroy character, and the point, under the guise of a flaw in the analogy. The only flaw is the false accusation and assumption. If you and Natters continue to do this type of thing, I am no longer going to discuss this with you. This is not nice, nor is it the truth, nor is it edifying.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

michelle

New Member
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He could if He wanted to do so but so far no KJVO can tell us which Revision/Edition (Cambridge, Oxford, Nelson (1611-1853)) of the KJV is the "perfect" one.

He could make us "perfectly" sinless in the here and now if He wanted to do so.

HankD
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We have told you all continually, but you just ignore the answer, and rant that we have never answered it. Maybe if more people payed attention to the context of what people say, rather than focusing upon the non-essentials of the post, one would understand the answer given. None of you have, and I fear none of you can. You are all too caught up in fighting against a man-made false label, rather that looking at the truth of this issue honestly. &lt;judgement of spirituality deleted&gt;

Gal. 1

6. I marvel that ye are so soon removed from him that called you into the grace of Christ unto another gospel:
7. Which is not another; but there be some that trouble you, and would pervert the gospel of Christ.
8. But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed.
9. As we said before, so say I now again, If any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed.
10. For do I now persuade men, or God? or do I seek to please men? for if I yet pleased men, I should not be the servant of Christ.
11. But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man.
12. For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ.


Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

[ August 20, 2004, 01:02 AM: Message edited by: C4K ]
 

NaasPreacher (C4K)

Well-Known Member
Originally posted by C4K:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by michelle:



For your information, most versions still use the W/H text, to which is now renamed the Majority Text. It is still the same methods and the same corrupt texts.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
Thank you sister, for about 25 years I have been under the impression that the Minority Texts were the basis for W/H. </font>[/QUOTE]Doing just a little online research michelle. Most of what I am finding equates Majority Text with the Byzantine Text as opposed to the crtical texts. Can you show me please where W/H have been renamed Majority TExt.
 

michelle

New Member
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And what Bible did Paul use as HIS final authority?
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The same scriptures that God has provided for generations, even until this day, to which is provided and evidenced in our Holy Bible, to which is called the KJB.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

NaasPreacher (C4K)

Well-Known Member
Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by C4K:
Can you show me please where W/H have been renamed Majority TExt.
Well, the W/H text is called, the "NEW TR." That's how I found out. </font>[/QUOTE]Now I am really confused

The NEW TR = Majority Text??
 

Cix

New Member
Originally posted by michelle:
To blatantly and honestly answer your question how do we know which one is our final authority?: It is by the Holy Spirit of God. John 16,17
I once thought like you and in the false KJVO position. I thank the Holy Spirit for giving me the power to discern that my position was incorrect.
 

Cix

New Member
Originally posted by Dr. Bob:
And what Bible did Paul use as HIS final authority?
Or did he even need a Bible since he was speaking directly with the Almighty. Now to expand on that, what Bible will we use in Heaven? Or will God give us perfect memory and discernment in Heaven where we won't need it written in a book?
 
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