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Final Authority before 1611?

Orvie

New Member
Originally posted by Trotter:
Michelle,

If I didn't know that you were absolutely serious I'd laugh out loud at your statement. That you actually believe it makes me want to cry.

You surpass all of the people that I have ever known who willingly remain rooted in their own delusions rather than admit that they are wrong.
In Christ,
Trotter
Kinda reminds me of my ole buddy, "Precepts" Man! I miss his entertainment. Oops! Michelle, my bell whatta close 2d ya are to Mr Precepts. ;)
;)
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by robycop3:
KJVBT:Did you know that there was a practicing lesbian and sodomite on the NIV commitee?
This is not a good recomindation to me.


The person in question, Virginia Mollenkott, was a part-time consultant on language style, and had absolutely nothing to do with any of the actual translating. In fact, she was little-used by the committee, and dropped from the staff when her sexual orientation became known.
The Bible requires the separation. The NIV business ignores the Biblical instruction concerning the separation.
 

Orvie

New Member
Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by robycop3:
KJVBT:Did you know that there was a practicing lesbian and sodomite on the NIV commitee?
This is not a good recomindation to me.


The person in question, Virginia Mollenkott, was a part-time consultant on language style, and had absolutely nothing to do with any of the actual translating. In fact, she was little-used by the committee, and dropped from the staff when her sexual orientation became known.
The Bible requires the separation. The NIV business ignores the Biblical instruction concerning the separation. </font>[/QUOTE]i.e. what's good for the goose, is NOT good for the gander.
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by robycop3:
Michelle said "The NIV does deny the deity of Christ in many verses"

False witness. You do not understand the meaning of "deny".
The NIV omitted the deity of Jesus Christ in the NT alone almost 200 times.
 

rsr

<b> 7,000 posts club</b>
Moderator
Is it possible that our dear michelle is a troll who is just baiting the folks on this board to get their dander up? That's the most charitable explanation I can arrive at ...
 

Dr. Bob

Administrator
Administrator
Originally posted by rsr:
Is it possible that our dear michelle is a troll who is just baiting the folks on this board to get their dander up? That's the most charitable explanation I can arrive at ...
Of course that is my assumption. Working on proving it. Cannot believe anyone would actually believe what she says she believes.

Doing an isp search to be sure this isn't the daughter of riplinger, infamous internet troll that sounds as syruppy pious and flaming. She sure is sounding more and more like it.
 

natters

New Member
Askjo said "The NIV omitted the deity of Jesus Christ in the NT alone almost 200 times."

FALSE WITNESS.

How pathetic can this get????
 

Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
Originally posted by Askjo:
The NIV omitted the deity of Jesus Christ in the NT alone almost 200 times.
Nice Montra, Askjo -- Sing it!

BTW, care to give examples and/or tell us
what you think it means.

KJVO - harbinger of the new age Baptist

saint.gif
 

Askjo

New Member
Originally posted by natters:
Askjo said "The NIV omitted the deity of Jesus Christ in the NT alone almost 200 times."

FALSE WITNESS.

How pathetic can this get????
I have first-hand proof. :rolleyes:
 

Orvie

New Member
Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Askjo:
If you believe in God of not confusion, you better quit using MVs.
Or if you believe in a god of confusion, you can go ahead to use MVs. </font>[/QUOTE]If you believe God is not able to speak to us in today's language, be a KJVO:kjbo, if you believe that God's Word for today's readers must be stale instead of fresh, that the Sword is rusty (old English) instead of razor sharp (today's English, highly accurately translated), then you're a KJVO:kjbo. ;)
 

Cix

New Member
Originally posted by michelle:
You are trying to say there are errors in the word of God, to which I know, and generations have known, and you must always refer to the Hebrew and Greek to try to prove you are correct in saying the KJB has errors. I do not need to know the Greek and Hebrew to know what God's word says, and to know that I have it perfectly in my own language. Your futile attempts to show the KJB has errors, is to only justify the obvious errors in the mv's. You must go to the origional languages in order to convince and deceive the naive that the lie is the truth. You will fail with me, each and every time (even though your vanity tells you otherwise) that God's word has errors in it. There are none. You can believe there is, but you are very WRONG. I have no need for the Hebrew and Greek language, ecspecially from those who try to make it say something opposite and contrary to what God has already provided in our own language. This seems very much like what the pharisees did, and the Roman Catholic priest did/do.

I have no knowledge of those languages, and I do not need them. God provided for me in my own language. You are putting the Hebrew and Greek language on the level of idolatry, in order to prove something that isn't the truth. No where in God's word does HE say that the Hebrew and Greek languages are to supercede my own, once it has been provided. The KJB mirrors these texts, as well as the other Bibles from them. The KJB improved the previous Bibles, but did not ALTER OR CHANGE them, as we see with the mv's today. You believe a lie, if you believe otherwise, because the evidence and facts of this are apparent to anyone who has eyes to see, and ears to hear.

love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
Michele, WHERE do you think that the KJV came from? Did it just magically appear in a bookstore in 1611? Or was it T R A N S L A T E D from GREEK and HEBREW? If the Greek and Hebrew was good enough for the King James translators why isn't it good enough for you? How would you check to see if something was translated accurately? You would go BACK TO THE ORIGINALS and COMPARE them with the translation. The originals being Greek and Hebrew, which are the inspired word of GOD and are 100% without any errors.
 

Cix

New Member
19 pages for this thread and I still don't have an answer from a KJVonly-ite as to "WHAT WAS THE FINAL AUTHORITY BEFORE 1611?"
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by michelle:
--------------------------------------------------
Could it possibly be that God put His stamp of approval on a version of the OT that Matthew was using which was not 100% accurate (EEK!) with the original?

--------------------------------------------------

Since the scriptures were inspired by God, this statement is false. And another point to remember is that the New Testament is also God breathed. The Apostles did not write down what they thought, nor what they wanted, but what the Lord inspired them to write,
... and in Luke 4:18 God inspired Luke to record what Jesus read from the text of Isaiah 61:1 that he held in His very own hands. IT WAS OBVIOUSLY DIFFERENT FROM THE TEXT USED BY THE KJV TRANSLATORS for Isaiah 61.

You still have not dealt with this fact. The KJV contains two versions of Isaiah 61:1. I have no problem accepting them both. In fact, I have no problem saying that they mean the same thing and are therefore both the perfect Word of God. But that is because I am consistent and do not resort to double standards.

These two passages in the KJV are both valid in the exact same way that the NKJV and NASB along with the KJV are all valid.
 

NaasPreacher (C4K)

Well-Known Member
Originally posted by Cix:
19 pages for this thread and I still don't have an answer from a KJVonly-ite as to "WHAT WAS THE FINAL AUTHORITY BEFORE 1611?"
There won't be an answer even when this is closed on page 20 :( .
 

Cix

New Member
Originally posted by C4K:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Cix:
19 pages for this thread and I still don't have an answer from a KJVonly-ite as to "WHAT WAS THE FINAL AUTHORITY BEFORE 1611?"
There won't be an answer even when this is closed on page 20 :( . </font>[/QUOTE]It's sad that some people have the answer and some people are clueless as to what that answer is.
 
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