For Whose Benefit was the Bible Written ?

1st Corinthians 10:11 says:

"Now all these things happened unto them for ensamples: and they are written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the world are come."

and Romans 15:4 says:

"For whatsoever things were written aforetime were written for our learning, that we through patience and comfort of the scriptures might have hope."

The writer of both Scriptures, of course, was Paul, and his subject was the disobedient Jews or disobedient and rebellious Israel. Now, if whatever was written was written as example, admonition, and learning tool of all mankind, wouldn't the Holy Spirit, whom we all profess to believe to be the true author of Scripture, say so ?

I have read the Bible cover to cover, fast and slowly, and have yet to see a specific Scripture that says the Bible and the Word of God was written for the salvation, learning, and benefit of all mankind.

Does anybody have such a Scripture ?

I may have missed it.

 

With all due respects, that will be an altogether different topic, because my question there is : saved from what ?

 

I agree with this, with a little rephrasing.
It will bring someone to (timely) salvation (their acceptance of the truth of Jesus Christ is proof of their eternal salvation already possessed).....

or reaffirm their (eternal) condemnation ...

 

Evidently, Paul does not find it contradictory. Neither do any of the writers in the New Testament since none of them contradicted Paul to say that the Scriptures were for all mankind's learning.

Let me put my position this way.

God elected His people in Christ before the foundation of the world, He wrote their names in the Lamb's Book of Life before the foundation of the world, the plan to save these people from hellfire and eternal condemnation is a plan that was agreed upon by the Triune God from the foundation of the world.

Everything that God planned was planned with eternity future in view. The final destination of His people, led by His Son, will be in His presence, in eternity future. Their salvation was for eternity future, not for this timely world.

Notice that the Bible begins with "In the beginning" and the scene of the creation, and ends with Amen, in Revelation, and the scene of eternity future.

Because Christ is Eternal God Himself, positionally His blood has already been shed, and effective for His people, in eternity past, or there would be nothing that washed Moses, Enoch, and Elijah clean of their sins.

Therefore, because in the mind and intent of the Eternal God His people are already seated, in Christ, in heavenly places, their eternal salvation is a finished fact for Him, sealed and finalized, IN TIME, at the cross.

All those who needs to be saved, are already saved.

However, not all those who are already saved, are regenerate, which is what the Holy Spirit is accomplishing at this poin in time, apart from human means, any human means. He knows those who are His, and in His own due time, He will quicken them.

After they are quickened, IF HE SO WILLS for them, He will bring them to a hearing of the Gospel, the good news of their finished eternal salvation, and to the learning of Scriptures, and from such learning, the way of Kingdom living, and His people will learn of how He deals with His people through the history of His dealings with Israel in the past.

I say IF HE SO WILLS, because remember that everything He has done is for His glory, that He may be glorified in, and by, His saints, and "in the ages to come He might show the exceeding riches of His grace in His kindness to us through Christ Jesus"(Ephesians 2:7).

There are those of His own who will never hear the gospel of their finished salvation, either because they are infants, unable to comprehend, or caught up in their religion (remember Paul's lament about God's people among Judaism in Romans 9 and 10).

Those who never get to hear the gospel, join a gospel church, and live a gospel life, will not know the blessings of God in this fallen world, but they were never saved for this world, and God's purposes for them are not of this world.

Therefore, I maintain that the Bible was written not for the benefit of humankind, but for the benefit of those whom God will call to a gospel church, the believers (as differentiated from His elect).

Canadyjd says "saved from wrath". True. But, timely wrath, because the eternal wrath of God has already been satisfied in Christ and by Christ at the cross of Calvary. Either that is true, or that is false, take your pick.

 

to your first point:
When did the word of God, according to Scriptures, start to be for all humanity ? From the beginning ? Scripture for that, please. Scripture that is specific, and not inferred.

to your second point:
the gospel is a revelation to the redeemed people of God, not to the unredeemed. It brings life and immortality to light (2 Timothy 1:10).

to the first sub-point: mankind has never been bereft of morality of some kind. as a matter of fact, all religions, before God revealed His Name to a national people, were based on moralities, sets of do's and dont's.

your second sub-point is the only one I can agree with at this juncture.

 

Oh, so, wise master, this pitiful brown skinned inferior human being is also a theological simpleton because he does not speak the fanciful English that yourself does ?

Well, okay.

Now, here's to be a little bit more of a simpleton. The Bible is the written word of God. In case it escaped your dazzling brilliance: the OP asked "For Whose Benefit Was the Bible Written" ?

Pray tell, the story of Adam and Eve is a written part of the written word,
did Adam and Eve have the Bible ?

Second simpleton question: Did the Amalekites, the Gibeonites, the Jebusites, the Hittites, and all the other "Biblical" tribes with whom Israel clashed, and some of whom God ordered Israel to destroy utterly, have the written word of God ? Is there a Scripture recounting an instance where God told the Israelites to "spread the word" to their enemy tribes ?

Third simpleton question: Were there no Chinese during those times when God was manifesting Himself to Israel, and handing down the Torah to them ? No Japanese people ? No Indonesian peoples ? No South Asian and Southeast Asian peoples ?

If your answer is they were extant then, so how did they come to possess the written word of God, a.k.a. the Bible ?

The Scriptures are clear:

Paul writes to the Romans - Whatsoever things were written aforetime were written for our (it will be interesting to see such a brilliant theological mind as yours try and justify that Paul meant the whole mankind with his use of the word "our") learning, that we (I take this to mean him and the Romans, and by extension, those who handle and hear the word of God, written and preached. But, what do I know, eh ? can't even tie my shoelaces...belly's blocking my view. Perhaps you know better, eh ?) through patience and comfort of the Scriptures might have hope.

Paul, again writes to the Corinthians - Now all these things happened unto them (who's them ? can you enlighten this theological simpleton ?) for ensamples: and they are written for our (who's our ? could it be Paul and the Corinthians ? Or do you say it is Paul and all humanity) admonition, upon whom the ends of the world are come. (Now, certainly, Adam and Eve were not of those upon whom the ends of the world are come. Or, could your theological brilliance prove they are, indeed ?).

All right, I will grant you that my question in the OP assumes that those who try to answer this will see that by Word of God, I mean the printed word of God, the Bible, the 66 Books, the Old and the New Testament, KJV, NKJV, Tyndale, Latin Vulgate, Young's Literal Translation, NASB, ASV, NASV, and a host of other translations.

But, leave it to a theological simpleton to assume that all readers will understand.

But that simply illustrates the point, O Brilliant One. Who benefited by John's preaching ? Believers. Who were told they were damned ? Unbelievers. And you are referring to the preached word. Let me repeat the question:

For whose benefit was the Bible written ?

Let me stress it a little more: For whose benefit were the Torah, the Prophets, the Books of Wisdom, the Books of History, the New Testament, the Pauline Epistles, and the General Epistles, and the Apocalypse, written ? WRITTEN ? as in using ink and papyrus, as in using the press ?

Of course he knew God's preached word, it was handed down to him by Adam himself, what's the matter with you ? That's like Sitting Bull's son knowing exactly the beginnings of the Battle of Little Big Horn, why it came about and what happened. He corrupted God's word because he is not OF GOD. He is not a brethren to Christ. He is not one of God's own, his name is not written in the Book of Life. He is a type of Anti-Christ.

Your failure to understand the reason for my question is a direct reflection of your opinion as to my mental capacity, your opinion of yourself as theologically superior to this small, brown-skinned, big-bellied, Filipino pretender to the English language. :BangHead:

There was a thread where I offered that the Bible was not written for the benefit of all humanity, and I was challenged, and decided to start this thread instead of hijacking another.

So, please, answer the question: FOR WHOSE BENEFIT WAS THE BIBLE (the 66 Books, the Old and New Testament) WRITTEN ? What does Scripture say ?

I offered two Scriptures that say the Bible was written for the benefit of believers only.

Now, give your Scriptures that say the Bible was written for the benefit of all humankind.

Now, this is where your brilliance is too dazzling you couldn't even read the statement of this theological simpleton correctly.

My only response to this is: HUH ?
Here's what I said: "mankind has never been bereft of morality of some kind. as a matter of fact, all religions, before God revealed His Name to a national people, were based on moralities, sets of do's and dont's.

Let me expand on that some more. From the garden, a sense of right and wrong, do's and dont's, are in all descendants of Adam and Eve. I would suggest you start your own thread on this theological mind-flash of yours, good sir, and stick to the question:

FOR WHOSE BENEFIT WAS THE BIBLE (El Biblia, 66 Books, some include the Apocrypha) WRITTEN ?