Alex Quackenbush said:
Many things are inferred and drawn out of Scripture. It is only the theological simpleton that requires direct statements on all matters from Scripture in order to make theological determinations.
Oh, so, wise master, this pitiful brown skinned inferior human being is also a theological simpleton because he does not speak the fanciful English that yourself does ?
Well, okay.
Now, here's to be a little bit more of a simpleton. The Bible is the
written word of God. In case it escaped your dazzling brilliance: the OP asked "For Whose Benefit Was the Bible Written" ?
Pray tell, the story of Adam and Eve is a written part of the written word,
did Adam and Eve have the Bible ?
Second simpleton question: Did the Amalekites, the Gibeonites, the Jebusites, the Hittites, and all the other "Biblical" tribes with whom Israel clashed, and some of whom God ordered Israel to destroy utterly, have the written word of God ? Is there a Scripture recounting an instance where God told the Israelites to "spread the word" to their enemy tribes ?
Third simpleton question: Were there no Chinese during those times when God was manifesting Himself to Israel, and handing down the Torah to them ? No Japanese people ? No Indonesian peoples ? No South Asian and Southeast Asian peoples ?
If your answer is they were extant then, so how did they come to possess the written word of God, a.k.a. the Bible ?
The Scriptures are clear:
Paul writes to the Romans - Whatsoever things were written aforetime were written for
our (it will be interesting to see such a brilliant theological mind as yours try and justify that Paul meant the whole mankind with his use of the word "our") learning, that
we (I take this to mean him and the Romans, and by extension, those who handle and hear the word of God, written and preached. But, what do I know, eh ? can't even tie my shoelaces...belly's blocking my view. Perhaps you know better, eh ?) through patience and comfort of the Scriptures might have hope.
Paul, again writes to the Corinthians - Now all these things happened unto them (who's them ? can you enlighten this theological simpleton ?) for ensamples: and they are written for our (who's our ? could it be Paul and the Corinthians ? Or do you say it is Paul and all humanity) admonition, upon whom the ends of the world are come. (Now, certainly, Adam and Eve were not of those upon whom the ends of the world are come. Or, could your theological brilliance prove they are, indeed ?).
Alex Quackenbush said:
But to answer your question, when did the Word of God, according to Scripture, start to be for all humanity? Since Adam.
All right, I will grant you that my question in the OP assumes that those who try to answer this will see that by Word of God, I mean the printed word of God, the Bible, the 66 Books, the Old and the New Testament, KJV, NKJV, Tyndale, Latin Vulgate, Young's Literal Translation, NASB, ASV, NASV, and a host of other translations.
But, leave it to a theological simpleton to assume that all readers will understand.
Alex Quackenbush said:
And in Scripture we discover God's Word being taught and spoken to believers and unbelievers alike. Strange John the Baptist would preach (God's Word) to unbelievers. What a waste and contradiction by God to have His own prophet preach His Word to unbelievers. Hmmm. And that is but one example of God communicating to unbelievers.
But that simply illustrates the point, O Brilliant One. Who benefited by John's preaching ? Believers. Who were told they were damned ? Unbelievers. And you are referring to the
preached word. Let me repeat the question:
For whose benefit was the Bible
written ?
Let me stress it a little more: For whose benefit were the Torah, the Prophets, the Books of Wisdom, the Books of History, the New Testament, the Pauline Epistles, and the General Epistles, and the Apocalypse, written ? WRITTEN ? as in using ink and papyrus, as in using the press ?
Alex Quackenbush said:
Cain was obviously instructed in the Word of God, he knew to bring an offering to worship God but clearly was an unbeliever and decided to corrupt the right way and make it his way. So if God determined His Word was not for unbelievers then tell me why, friend, would he insure its instruction to Cain?
Of course he knew God's preached word, it was handed down to him by Adam himself, what's the matter with you ? That's like Sitting Bull's son knowing exactly the beginnings of the Battle of Little Big Horn, why it came about and what happened. He corrupted God's word because he is not OF GOD. He is not a brethren to Christ. He is not one of God's own, his name is not written in the Book of Life. He is a type of Anti-Christ.
Alex Quackenbush said:
Your want of some direct statement that says in the Bible, "God's Word is for all of humanity" reminds me of someone standing before 1,500 acres of dense tree growth and saying, "Show me a forest, show me a sign that says, THIS IS A FOREST, all I see right now are about 25 trees!"
Your failure to understand the reason for my question is a direct reflection of your opinion as to my mental capacity, your opinion of yourself as theologically superior to this small, brown-skinned, big-bellied, Filipino pretender to the English language. :BangHead:
There was a thread where I offered that the
Bible was not
written for the
benefit of all humanity, and I was challenged, and decided to start this thread instead of hijacking another.
So, please, answer the question: FOR WHOSE BENEFIT WAS THE BIBLE (the 66 Books, the Old and New Testament) WRITTEN ? What does Scripture say ?
I offered two Scriptures that say the Bible was written for the benefit of believers only.
Now, give your Scriptures that say the Bible was written for the benefit of all humankind.
Alex Quackenbush said:
As for this comment:
I challenge you with the reality that morality began before the SPECIFIC MORALITY for the theocracy of Israel that you seem to imagine is the beginning of codified morality in both civil and religious bodies and any body like that which prescribed morality COULDN'T trace it to Jehovah because obviously they hadn't met up with Israel yet but had a form of morality.
Now, this is where your brilliance is too dazzling you couldn't even read the statement of this theological simpleton correctly.
My only response to this is: HUH ?
Here's what I said: "mankind has
never been bereft of morality of some kind. as a matter of fact, all religions,
before God revealed His Name to a national people, were based on moralities, sets of do's and dont's.
Let me expand on that some more. From the garden, a sense of right and wrong, do's and dont's, are in all descendants of Adam and Eve. I would suggest you start your own thread on this theological mind-flash of yours, good sir, and stick to the question:
FOR WHOSE BENEFIT WAS THE BIBLE (El Biblia, 66 Books, some include the Apocrypha) WRITTEN ?
