Calvibaptist
New Member
Sorry about not replying earlier. I've been in and out today and hit or miss with the posts.Originally posted by rjprince:
CB,
I follow your thinking on this, but is it possible that Paul, in verse 23, has picked back up on what he said in 9-12?
Like I said, this is something I just sort of considered when I read Bill's post. I have always had a little problem with the flow of verse 23 into 24 because "being justified freely by His grace" refers back to the all of verse 23. I have to look at it further.
I agree and that is my problem with the way I have always looked at verse 23 and now trying to fit it with verse 24. Limiting the "all" to the "all who believe" of verse 22 seems, on the surface, to work. He has already said before that everyone is under sin and guilty before God, so it doesn't effect that biblical view.It does not follow that every person is justified freely by his grace, but it is consistent with all of Scripture to declare that "all mankind has sinned".
I can't argue much from technical aspects of Greek. I have only had 3 years as well and it has been 10 years since I studied it.Whether or not you can argue you point from the technical aspects of the Greek is beyond my three years of Greek, and not worth my time to develop at this point. In any case, any linguistic arguement must be kept subservient to the context and to the testimony of the rest of the Word.