How good is good enough?

[The Biblicist]

Some on this forum want to interpret the words that no man is justified by "works of the Law" or "deeds of the Law" to mean no man must become a Jew in order to become a Christian.

However, that will not cut it in Romans 3:24-5:2 as Abraham lived 430 years BEFORE the Law was given to Israel and yet Paul said he was not justified by his works. Obviously "his works" could have no possible reference to the Mosaic law. It had to do with his good or bad efforts to satisfy God or be justified before God.

Therefore, how good must one be in order to be justified by God? To enter heaven?

I believe Jesus answered that In Matthew 5:20 and 5:46 and James answered that in James 2:10-11

A person's WHOLE LIFE must be MORE righteous than the most pious people of the day. To enter heaven their righteousness must "EXCEED" that of the Scribes and Pharisees - Mt. 5:20

A person's WHOLE LIFE must EQUAL the righteousness of God to enter heaven - Mt. 5:46

If a person's WHOLE LIFE fails in but ONE POINT of the Law he is under the condemnation of the Law as sinner. Therefore, one must not fail ANY POINT of the Law THROUGHOUT HIS WHOLE LIFE to be justified by the Law.

That is why Christ had to come from heaven and be born of a virgin in order that no sin be found "in him" and then live a sinless life so as to be 'without sin". That is why substitutionary atonement is the only possible way salvation can happen. Spiritual union with Christ does not produce a WHOLE LIFE without sin.

 

[percho]

'For I say to you, that if your righteousness may not abound above that of the scribes and Pharisees, ye may not enter to the reign of the heavens. 5:20 YLT

Jesus answered, 'Verily, verily, I say to thee, If any one may not be born of water, and the Spirit, he is not able to enter into the reign of God; John 3:6 YLT

Would not one born of water and of Spirit not be born with the imputed righteousness of God unable to sin?

Question concerning some spoken of in this verse. Romans 8:29 YLT because whom He did foreknow, He also did fore-appoint, conformed to the image of His Son, that he might be first-born among many brethren;

Will these many brethren, when conformed to the image of the Son, sin any more?

 

[The Biblicist]

'For I say to you, that if your righteousness may not abound above that of the scribes and Pharisees, ye may not enter to the reign of the heavens. 5:20 YLT

Jesus answered, 'Verily, verily, I say to thee, If any one may not be born of water, and the Spirit, he is not able to enter into the reign of God; John 3:6 YLT

Would not one born of water and of Spirit not be born with the imputed righteousness of God unable to sin?

Question concerning some spoken of in this verse. Romans 8:29 YLT because whom He did foreknow, He also did fore-appoint, conformed to the image of His Son, that he might be first-born among many brethren;

Will these many brethren, when conformed to the image of the Son, sin any more?

Percho you never seem to learn! Jesus denied it was the body that was born of the Spirit, but it is the human "spirit" that is born of the Spirit. Man is spirit, soul, and body. Neither his soul or his body was born again. So he can sin in soul and body. However, what was born of spirit cannot sin because it is "created in righteousness and TRUE holiness." This has nothing to do with IMPUTED righteousness but IMPARTED righteousness to the spirit of man.

His soul/life is BEING saved. His body SHALL be saved, but his spirit HAS BEEN saved.

 

[clark thompson]

It is only by Christ that we can be saved, He was good enough but we can never be, it is why we need Him and His grace.