Featured How To scripturally Determine the Mind of God on the Modern Practice of Paraphrasing His Words

What version do you not consider to be a paraphrase?

 

Waiting to hear your view

Rob

 

(not really, but SOMEBODY needed to take a strong stand one way or the other)

 

The makers of the KJV used this practice of paraphrasing some of God's words. According to their marginal notes in the 1611 edition, they also used the practice of providing no English rendering for many original-language words of Scripture in their underlying texts. Is the paraphrasing in the KJV a good thing?

The KJV does not give word-for-word literal renderings for every original-language word in its underlying original-language texts.

Baptist pastor Glenn Conjurske (1947-2001), who was a defender of the KJV and a critic of modern English versions and who admitted his own bias for the KJV, acknowledged: “I grant that there is too much paraphrasing in the King James Version, more especially in the Old Testament. But even this may be excused, at least in part” (Olde Paths, October, 1997, p. 236; Bible Version Controversy, p. 230). Glenn Conjurske claimed: “Much of the paraphrasing in the King James Version is retained from Tyndale and Coverdale” (Ibid.).

Even though he is critical of the NKJV, Glenn Conjurske admitted: “The New King James Version has doubtless removed some paraphrasing which was in the old version” (Ibid.; Bible Version Controversy, p. 231).

 

Actually it was a serious question for you. Since you seem to think the KJV is a good translation I was curious as to what bibles you considered a paraphrase.

How To scripturally Determine the Mind of God on the Modern Practice of Paraphrasing His Words

From the title it would indicate that you think all modern bibles are a paraphrase so yes I was dealing with your question. But I notice that you did not answer to the question I put to you so I will rephrase it.

Are there any modern translations that you do not consider a paraphrase?

 

Well again, the Scriptures do not contain any instructions about how to translate from one language to another.
We must learn by example.
Fortunately, the Bible provides quite a few examples of translation… and quite a few examples of their use of paraphrase by both Jesus and his disciples.

Without some input from you, those that post are left without structure about what you desire to focus your attention upon.

Rob

 

Yes, God chose to use the LXX mightily. Alexander conquered much of the known world and spread the Greek language and culture around the world. The New Testament often quotes the Old Testament in Greek. Look at the Old Testament quotations. They will a lot of times agree with the Greek more than the Hebrew. The LXX is in the KJV.

 

In some respects, Sermons are a paraphrase of the Word

 

When you ask for opinions concerning which they would likely be differences of opinion and even disagreement, you are in effect looking for debate about it.

You do not define what you mean by paraphrasing.

You suggested that it is only present English Bibles that engage in paraphrasing while you in effect try to ignore the same thing in the pre-1611 English Bibles and in the 1611 KJV.

You do not demonstrate that you take any consistent or scriptural position on this matter of paraphrasing.

 

You try to put words in my mouth that I did not say while you do not deal with what I accurately stated.

I did not claim that all Bible translations are completely paraphrases. It would involve use of a fallacy to assert or suggest that because an English Bible translation has some paraphrasing that its complete text should be called or considered a paraphrase.