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"Husband of one wife"

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Alcott, Aug 20, 2006.

?
  1. Must be married

    5 vote(s)
    13.9%
  2. Must never have been divorced

    7 vote(s)
    19.4%
  3. Must never have been divorced, unless it was done before being saved

    1 vote(s)
    2.8%
  4. Must not be divorced and (legally) remarried

    6 vote(s)
    16.7%
  5. Must not have been divorced and (legally) remarried, unless this was before being saved

    1 vote(s)
    2.8%
  6. Must be a man

    14 vote(s)
    38.9%
  7. Must not have 2 or more spouses (by law or otherwise)

    20 vote(s)
    55.6%
  8. Must not be widowed

    1 vote(s)
    2.8%
  9. Must not widowed, unless remarried

    2 vote(s)
    5.6%
  10. Must be known to the congregation as having no more than one ‘love interest’ at a time

    7 vote(s)
    19.4%
Multiple votes are allowed.
  1. Alcott

    Alcott Well-Known Member
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    The NT requires a number of things for anyone who is to be an elder or deacon, including “the husband of one wife.” What exactly does that mean? Check all that apply.
     
  2. Revmitchell

    Revmitchell Well-Known Member
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    The transliteration of that verse is "One woman man". The word for divorced could have been used and was not.


    Who in the world voted to say a pastor has to be married? (rhetorical of course)
     
  3. LeBuick

    LeBuick New Member

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    Must be a man
    Must not have 2 or more spouses (by law or otherwise)
    Must be known to the congregation as having no more than one ‘love interest’ at a time

    I think these are the ones I voted for even though the last on could be deceptive. By love interest, I hope they mean wife or plutonic dating. I also hope known to the congregation means he has no secret lovers.
     
  4. EdSutton

    EdSutton New Member

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    I could not vote, because there are not enough, or perhaps 'clear enough', "choices". As in, there is no 'slot' for a faithful man whose spouse abandoned him due to her infidelity, and became another man's wife. Or one who may have been divorced because of his abuse. ("not a striker" is not given the same status as "the husband of one wife"?? It is in my Bible.) There are probably some more gray areas that are not mentioned here, as well as some not-so-gray areas as bigamy that are also not considered. I am not real big on pickin' and choosin' which ones I like and choose to apply, and skippin' the rest.

    Ed
     
  5. LeBuick

    LeBuick New Member

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    We'll count this a one vote, OTHER... :laugh: :laugh: :laugh: :wavey:
     
  6. El_Guero

    El_Guero New Member

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    The choices were limited . . .

    What is the deal with 'before becoming saved?' Sin before salvation is different than sin after salvation?

    I never see sin as being anything other than sin in the Bible.

    Have I missed something?
     
  7. EdSutton

    EdSutton New Member

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    No, becasuse I do agree with more than one of the options. They just are not enough or clear enough, as I said. I choose to withhold my vote, rather than give one that is partially correct and partially incorrect

    Ed
     
  8. Baptist Believer

    Baptist Believer Well-Known Member
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    Exactly right. It is an issue of blameless character, not merely marital circumstances.
     
  9. El_Guero

    El_Guero New Member

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    Brothers, I thought that the literal greek was "of [belonging to] one woman [a] man."

     
  10. Christian

    Christian New Member

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    Well I see the number one response so far is having two or more wives. Since polygamists were not allowed in the early church, Paul would not have meant 'not having multiple wives' as a qualification for either elders or deacons. Any such would be outside the church and not available for consideration.
     
  11. webdog

    webdog Active Member
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    Where do you get this from?
     
  12. El_Guero

    El_Guero New Member

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    That is good to know . . .

     
  13. El_Guero

    El_Guero New Member

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    I still can't get over 60% of the people responding that a 'husband' does not hve to be a man . . .
     
  14. Christian

    Christian New Member

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    Because the Lord defines marriage as the relationship between one man and one woman. (see Matthew 19). The church established later in Acts Chapter 2 was Christ's church. (Matthew 16:18) And it was not up to men as to who was added to His church. Acts 2:47 And the Lord added to their number day by day those who were being saved. (RSV)
     
  15. npetreley

    npetreley New Member

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    :laugh::laugh::laugh:

    Maybe they're Bob Dylan fans.

    "How many roads must a man walk down, before you can call him a man?"

    The answer is blowing in the wind, which could be a reference to the Spirit, but I don't think Bob Dylan had that in mind at the time. He later became a Christian, though.
     
    #15 npetreley, Aug 21, 2006
    Last edited by a moderator: Aug 21, 2006
  16. Bro Tony

    Bro Tony New Member

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    If most were like me, we felt we had only one to pick. I guess this is a good lesson for we 60% to read the instructions first. Never did it at Christmas in assembling toys, better learn here.:wavey: :thumbs:

    Bro Tony
     
  17. El_Guero

    El_Guero New Member

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    WHEW!!!

    I was really worried there!
     
  18. webdog

    webdog Active Member
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    Matt. 19 can be argued that Jesus is referring to a union between a husband and his wife, not a "one wife only" declaration. We know that there were many godly men that were polygamists.

    You still have not provided a text that states polygamists not being allowed in the early church, which you use as a reason Paul coul not be referring to a "one woman man" qualification for elders and deacons.
     
  19. Christian

    Christian New Member

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    Matthew 19:5 and the TWO shall become one flesh (not three)

    True many pious men (Israelites) were suffered polygamist under the Law of Moses, but that was nailed to the cross. Col. 2:14

    Is one wife implied in these verses?
    1Thel 4:4 That every one of you should know how to possess his vessel in sanctification and honour; (KJV) (vessel is wife, singular)
    1Cor 7:2 Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband. (KJV) (wife, not wives)
    1Pet 3:7 Likewise, ye husbands, dwell with them according to knowledge, giving honour unto the wife, as unto the weaker vessel, and as being heirs together of the grace of life; that your prayers be not hindered. (KJV) (again singular)
     
  20. webdog

    webdog Active Member
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    Again, I don't think those verses argue either way for one wife or numerous wives. They deal with a husband and his wife, not how many wives. As far as Matt. 19 goes, the two becoming one is dealing with the union between man and woman in marriage (two becoming one), and not how many wives are allowed / disallowed.
     
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