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"Husband of one wife"

Meaning of "husband of one wife"

  • Must be married

    Votes: 5 13.9%
  • Must never have been divorced

    Votes: 7 19.4%
  • Must never have been divorced, unless it was done before being saved

    Votes: 1 2.8%
  • Must not be divorced and (legally) remarried

    Votes: 6 16.7%
  • Must not have been divorced and (legally) remarried, unless this was before being saved

    Votes: 1 2.8%
  • Must be a man

    Votes: 14 38.9%
  • Must not have 2 or more spouses (by law or otherwise)

    Votes: 20 55.6%
  • Must not be widowed

    Votes: 1 2.8%
  • Must not widowed, unless remarried

    Votes: 2 5.6%
  • Must be known to the congregation as having no more than one ‘love interest’ at a time

    Votes: 7 19.4%

  • Total voters
    36

npetreley

New Member
webdog said:
Again, I don't think those verses argue either way for one wife or numerous wives. They deal with a husband and his wife, not how many wives. As far as Matt. 19 goes, the two becoming one is dealing with the union between man and woman in marriage (two becoming one), and not how many wives are allowed / disallowed.

I was going to say the same thing.
 

Christian

New Member
webdog said:
Again, I don't think those verses argue either way for one wife or numerous wives. They deal with a husband and his wife, not how many wives. As far as Matt. 19 goes, the two becoming one is dealing with the union between man and woman in marriage (two becoming one), and not how many wives are allowed / disallowed.

OK, let's try one more:

Rom 7:2 For example, by law a married woman is bound to her husband as long as he is alive, but if her husband dies, she is released from the law of marriage. 3 So then, if she marries another man while her husband is still alive, she is called an adulteress. But if her husband dies, she is released from that law and is not an adulteress, even though she marries another man. (NIV)

[Wouldn't the same apply to the husband if he married another woman while his first wife was still lived? (it would be adultery)]
 

webdog

Active Member
Site Supporter
[Wouldn't the same apply to the husband if he married another woman while his first wife was still lived? (it would be adultery)]
Good question. I'm not sure the converse can automatically be assumed, though.
 

Brother Bob

New Member
The only way a preacher with us can have been married twice is if the first one died. If he is divorced and marries again, for any reason, his credentials are taken. I must say it is not completely accepted by everyone but they do have to live by it. I should of said "we have to live by it". If a preacher is divorced and does not marry again then he can keep his credentials but very few ever are able to live that way.
 

Christian

New Member
webdog said:
Good question. I'm not sure the converse can automatically be assumed, though.

Compare then:

Rom 7:2 For example, by law a married woman is bound to her husband as long as he is alive, but if her husband dies, she is released from the law of marriage. 3 So then, if she marries another man while her husband is still alive, she is called an adulteress. But if her husband dies, she is released from that law and is not an adulteress, even though she marries another man. (NIV)


Mt 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery. (KJV)

These verses are similar but in reverse gender. The reason vs. 9 is adultery is because he is still married to the first wife in God's eyes. From vs. 6 in Matthew What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder, (not the lawyer, not the judge, not even oneself), we see that the marriage is still in effect in Gods eyes. The first is his wife; the second is his partner in adultery. (the same as Rom 7:2,3

So taking another wife, in the absence divorce for fornication or death constitutes adultery. Therefore polygamy equals adultery.
 

npetreley

New Member
Christian said:
[Wouldn't the same apply to the husband if he married another woman while his first wife was still lived? (it would be adultery)]
No. The rules for men and women were quite very different in the law. For example, there is a provision in the law for a husband to write his wife a certificate of divorce. There is no provision for a wife to write her husband a certificate of divorce. There are also examples of men with multiple wives without being considered guilty of any wrongdoing (right or wrong, they weren't breaking the law). I'm not aware of anywhere in the Bible where a woman had multiple husbands (at the same time).
 
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