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I Cor 13:10

Discussion in '2000-02 Archive' started by Ps104_33, Jul 5, 2002.

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  1. Ps104_33

    Ps104_33 New Member

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    Can someone also point me to a commentary prior to the modern day toungues movement which began, probably in the early 1900's, which interprets this verse ("that which is perfect is come") as pertaining to the word of God? No opinions please, just a commentary from the 1800's or earlier as I am debating someone on this issue.
    I believe that the popular interpretation of this verse is a reaction to toungues.
     
    #1 Ps104_33, Jul 5, 2002
  2. boris99

    boris99 New Member

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    Not sure I can help there... if I'm not mistaken, though, the majority of scholars believe that "that which is perfect" refers to Christ, not the complete canon of Scripture. One problem there, though, is that the text would be referring to Christ as an "it", since no personal pronoun is used there.

    I am not a proponent of the modern-day tongues movement by any means... but I don't think that you can use this passage alone to prove that tongues have totally ceased.
     
    #2 boris99, Jul 5, 2002
  3. Doc Yankum

    Doc Yankum New Member

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    #3 Doc Yankum, Jul 5, 2002
  4. Ps104_33

    Ps104_33 New Member

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    I have Henry's commentaries. He holds to the view that "that which is perfect....." is Christ and His Kingdom.

    As far as the "it" is concerned, there are places where the Holy Spirit is referred to as "it" and Jesus referred to as "that holy thing". To worry about the word "it" is a weak arguement.

    Read on down to verse 12 it says we will see "face to face".Does this referr to the written word?
     
    #4 Ps104_33, Jul 5, 2002
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