I really don't understand which view of Free Grace is correct.

[Guido]

According to both views of Free Grace, one is saved by believing that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, but according to one view, that term signifies the one who suffered for the sins of the world on the cross, and who is God, and according to the other view, Free Grace Theology, the term signifies the one who guarantees resurrection and eternal life to whoever believes in Him for it. I don't know which view is correct, but the conversation between Jesus and Martha in John 11 indicates strongly that the latter view is correct.

21 Then said Martha unto Jesus, Lord, if thou hadst been here, my brother had not died.

22 But I know, that even now, whatsoever thou wilt ask of God, God will give it thee.

23 Jesus saith unto her, Thy brother shall rise again.

24 Martha saith unto him, I know that he shall rise again in the resurrection at the last day.

25 Jesus said unto her, I am the resurrection, and the life: he that believeth in me, though he were dead, yet shall he live:

26 And whosoever liveth and believeth in me shall never die. Believest thou this?

27 She saith unto him, Yea, Lord: I believe that thou art the Christ, the Son of God, which should come into the world.

Of course, according to Free Grace Theology, it is not necessary to believe in that Christ guarantees resurrection to the believer, but simply that he guarantees them eternal life.

I do not understand this either: The majority text seems to strongly support Free Grace Theology, according to the explanations of verses I read, and according to my understanding of those verses, but the Received Text, on which the kJV is based, or maybe just the KJV, has slightly obscure renderings, according to my understanding. For instance, Romans says, "[Jesus]whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in His blood.", but Grace Evangelical Society interprets the Greek in the MT as saying something like, "[Christ]whom God has set forth as a mercy-seat in His blood, through faith". However, John 11 is the same is both texts in the above mentioned passage, as far as I know.

Please help. I don't know which is correct, and I don't know what to tell other people.

 

[Van]

Rather than seeking to understand man-made doctrine, you should ask how to understand what scripture says of whether the lost are able to seek God and trust in Christ.

Is the exact content of what it means to "believe into Him" spelled out? Or the exact content of those who believe "upon Him who raised Jesus from the dead."

What if the exact content of our faith does not determine our salvation. What if how ardently we hold our beliefs does not determine our salvation. What if God alone determines whether or not to credit our faith as righteousness, and can turn a sows ear into a silk purse or not. Say I am just a stupid fisherman and have a very limited knowledge of God's word, but I love God with all my heart, and God chose me over a Pharisee who sported long tassels on his robe?

 

[Deacon]

I identify as a follower of Free Grace theology.

Similar to many theological methods there are various forms or degrees of adherence.
Just as there are passionate hyper-calvinists, there are fanatical free-grace theologians.

It's probably best to be somewhere in the middle of most theological systems.
I don't spend a lot of time worrying where exactly I fall on the scale.

Rob

 

[Silverhair]

According to both views of Free Grace, one is saved by believing that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, but according to one view, that term signifies the one who suffered for the sins of the world on the cross, and who is God, and according to the other view, Free Grace Theology, the term signifies the one who guarantees resurrection and eternal life to whoever believes in Him for it. I don't know which view is correct, but the conversation between Jesus and Martha in John 11 indicates strongly that the latter view is correct.



Of course, according to Free Grace Theology, it is not necessary to believe in that Christ guarantees resurrection to the believer, but simply that he guarantees them eternal life.

I do not understand this either: The majority text seems to strongly support Free Grace Theology, according to the explanations of verses I read, and according to my understanding of those verses, but the Received Text, on which the kJV is based, or maybe just the KJV, has slightly obscure renderings, according to my understanding. For instance, Romans says, "[Jesus]whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in His blood.", but Grace Evangelical Society interprets the Greek in the MT as saying something like, "[Christ]whom God has set forth as a mercy-seat in His blood, through faith". However, John 11 is the same is both texts in the above mentioned passage, as far as I know.

Please help. I don't know which is correct, and I don't know what to tell other people.

Eph 2:8 For by grace you have been saved through faith...

That says it all. The bible as I understand it tells me that I am saved by the grace of God because I have placed my trust in the risen Son.