webdog said:
I want to add something to this discussion that Allan once pointed out to me from John 9:39 Jesus said, "I came into this world for judgment, in order that those who do not see will see and those who do see will become blind."
Joh 9:40 Some of the Pharisees who were with Him heard these things and asked Him, "We aren't blind too, are we?"
Joh 9:41 "If you were blind," Jesus told them, "you wouldn't have sin.
But now that you say, 'We see'--your sin remains.
I think a key word is found in verse 41 "remains". The greek (meno) means "to stay", or "not depart", meaning it is imputed to you and charged to you...you alone . This was the case with Adam, and every person born since. Original sin and infant salvation go hand in hand. Adam is guilty of his sin, we are guilty for ours.
I read and re-read this post trying to understand what connection you made between the sin of these men spoken of in John 9 and the doctrine of original sin (as we call it theologically) revealed in other places in Scripture. In reading the story, I see a man quite sensible of his sin and need of Christ, that is, the man born blind who believed on the Lord Jesus Christ. Now, some of the Pharisees who were following Jesus with a wicked heart, that they may trap Him or ensare Him somehow, heard what Jesus said of Himself.."...for judgment I am come into this world That they which see not, might see And that they which see might be made blind." v.39
When those certain Pharisees heard it they asked the Lord if they were blind also. I do not suppose they asked this question with grieved and worried hearts, sensible of the possible danger of their souls. No. I believe they felt the finger of God upon their souls, and His conviction burned in their minds and they asked with indignation this question, considering themselve to be wise and knowledgeable.
So our Lord tells them that if they were blind, that is, if they were sensible to it, and desired to know the truth, then they would have no sin. Not that our Lord is teaching that unbelief is not sin, but that they might have pardon of their sin, and being somewhat sensible of their blindness, have hope that they may be forgiven and illuminated.
But becasue they thought themselves already wise and knowledgeable, needing nothing, and certainly not from Jesus, their sin remains. That is, it is not taken away. Their error would not be forgiven.
From my estimation Jesus in the case is highlighting a specific sin. The text is not teaching or supposing to teach what we theologically call "Federal Headship" This is clearly taught in other passages of Scripture, and this passage in no way (as best as I can see) takes away from such teaching.
Just my thoughts on it...