Heavenly Pilgrim
New Member
Jim 1999 brought up a distinction on another thread that needs a thread of it’s own. I have heard for some time some objecting to this form or that form of God’s choosing, and never really addressed it directly. Here was Jim’s remark.
My question to the list is, can God be sovereign in any sense if in fact we try and limit the way He chooses? Can we say that God does not or cannot choose directly as a result of his foreknowledge without limiting His sovereignty? If one tries to say that they do not believe that God chooses via His foreknowledge, and rather states that God chooses by absolute sovereignty instead, is their reasoning sound and their objection valid? Again, do we limit the sovereignty of God by declaring that He cannot choose according to His foreknowledge? If not, why not?
Jim, to my knowledge, was not depicting any ideas of his own necessarily, but rather simply trying to clear up how those holding to a particular end time view might feel. So this thread is not about Jim’s personal views or those of any other on this list, but rather concerns the issues of foreknowledge and election and the manner in which a Sovereign God can or does choose to act.“Jim 1999: In the decree order they allowed foreknowledge as the basis for predestination and election rather than the absolute sovereignty of God choose the elect and passing by the remainder. So, God chose the elect because He previously knew they would accept Christ.”
My question to the list is, can God be sovereign in any sense if in fact we try and limit the way He chooses? Can we say that God does not or cannot choose directly as a result of his foreknowledge without limiting His sovereignty? If one tries to say that they do not believe that God chooses via His foreknowledge, and rather states that God chooses by absolute sovereignty instead, is their reasoning sound and their objection valid? Again, do we limit the sovereignty of God by declaring that He cannot choose according to His foreknowledge? If not, why not?