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Is the 1769 Oxford KJV edition the final, perfect, and inerrant edition?

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
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Al Lacy maintained that "the 1769 edition of the 1611 King James Bible is PERFECT" (Can I Trust My Bible, p. 144). Al Lacy claimed: “The King James Bible we have today is the 1769 edition. You will please note that it is number SEVEN. There has never been another edition since” (Ibid.).

Terence McLean asserted: “It is the 1769 edition which we now read” (History of Your Bible, p. 48). Terence McLean wrote: “Those are changes in orthography and calligraphy, not changes in the text of God’s perfectly preserved words in your King James Authorized 1769 Bible” (p. 49).

Lawrence Bednar referred to “KJV language up-dating, up to the final 1769 edition” (Evidence, p. 72; see also p. 276). Lawrence Bednar claimed that “the finalized KJB text is inerrant” and that “inerrancy will extent to the final authorized 1769 KJB edition” (Case, p. 102).

Joey Faust maintained that "nothing after 1769 is a true edition" (Common Man‘s Defense of KJV-onlyism, p. 43).

William Sutton maintained that in 1769 “this would be the last time God’s fingerprints ever touched the Holy Bible” (Holy Bible Code, Vol. 7, p. 169). William Sutton claimed: “Upon His completion of the 1769 edition of The Holy Bible the Divine Author permanently departed from His creative work of the Bible. Thus it stands divinely authorized, complete, and perfect” (Ibid.). William Sutton asserted: “The only alterations made to the 1769 edition of the KJV were merely spelling and capitalization; no words were ever changed” (p. 675). William Sutton claimed: “From 1769 onward this revised edition became God’s final and finished work” (p. 677).
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
There were literally hundreds of differences between the texts of the 1611 and the 1769 text, and were not just "merely spelling and capitalization"

And why do many KJVO state that either the Cambridge 1873 or the Scrivener Kjv /TR editions are the real true perfect Kjv, not the 1769?
 
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