Is the King James bible inerrant?

[xdisciplex]

Does this mean that all people back then were totally dependant on the false teachings of the catholic church and unable to even be saved because they had no bible or couldn't read it?

 

[Darron Steele]

Does this mean that all people back then were totally dependant on the false teachings of the catholic church and unable to even be saved because they had no bible or couldn't read it?

You may be unknowingly adding to the causes of salvation.

Ephesians 2:8-10 states that “for by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, not a result of works, so that no one may boast. For |in Christ Jesus, God made us new people |for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them” (ESV|ICB|ESV).

We are saved by faith, not reading of Scripture. Most medieval people were illiterate, and that would include Christians. This passage, however, states that they and we are saved "through faith" and "not a result of works," which includes reading Scripture.

Acts 16:31a says “‘Believe on the Lord Jesus|, and you will be saved’” (ASV|NASB). It is very simple; when we genuinely believe on Jesus Christ as Lord, and conseqently turn from our ways opposed by Him in repentace, and submit our wills to His in obedience because we believe Him to be Lord, we are saved.

The Orthodox and Catholic denominations have much wrong with them. However, they do teach to laity the things Jesus taught us to do in our regular lives even if they themselves do not follow them, and laity hear and heard at their meetings to follow and obey Jesus Christ as Lord. This is enough; the Lord in His grace took it from there.

 

[Ed Edwards]

xdisciplex:

I realize that what I am about to post will be much hated because of how the fact is abused by others, but I am going to say it anyway.

God finished giving us Scripture before the end of the first century, but it was not until the 1500's that copies of Scripture readable by their owner became a widespread phenomenon. Before then, most Christians simply did not have a private copy of Scripture.

My point: before the 1500's, most Christians simply did not have a private copy of Scripture to spend hours poring over in order to verify that they understand every minute detail of what Scripture teaches.

At 2 Peter 1:3, however, it says that God “hath granted unto us all things that pertain to life and godliness” (ASV). However, He did not give the New Testament church enough copies of Scripture for each of them to spend hours a day poring over to analyze the most minute religious details. Hence, an errorless copy to EVERY Greek-reading Christian for this purpose, or a copy of an errorless translation in every language to every Christian for this purpose, is not needed, because otherwise God would have provided these.

He gave us Scripture for this purpose per 2 Timothy 3:16-7: "that the man of God may be complete,| entirely instructed for all good work.”
--ASV|RVR 1909 “enteramente instruído para toda buena obra” translated.

I trust the copies of Scripture that I have. Behold this from Psalm 12: "The words of the lord are pure words, silver purged in an earthen crucible, refined sevenfold. You O Lord, will keep them, guarding each from this age evermore” (JPS 1985). Based upon this, I trust that God has kept Scripture as intact as He sees fit and in conditions fitting for us to trust.

Amen, Brother Darron Steele -- Preach it! :thumbs:

The King James Versions are inerrant.
The NIV is inerrant.
The nKJV is inerrant.
It behoves us to study the scriptures together to figure out
why there might seem to be a few seeming contradictions
within a Version (like the KJVs or between
two different Versions.

Smashing somebody else's Bible is just NOT where it is at.

God has, in His Divine Providence, given us inerrant Bibles
in all valid English Versions.