Pastor_Bob
Well-Known Member
Mr. Ankerberg seems to contradict himself when he says that “only the originals…are the inerrant Word of God,” and then says that we today can “retain 100 percent of the inerrant Word of God.”Only the original writings by the inspired authors, those who first penned the 66 books of the canon of the Bible, are the actual, inerrant Word of God.”
“Today, even though we do not posses the original autographs (the actual parchments or papyri that Scripture was first written on), and even though meaningful variant readings (copyists differences) exist for about one or two percent of the Bible, we can still know that the copies – collectively taken – give us 100 percent of the original manuscripts. This means that nothing has been lost of God’s original inspiration and that we retain 100 percent of the inerrant Word of God.” The Facts on the King James Version Debate by John Ankerberg & John Weldon – pg. 7
I understand that he is stating his belief that, through the multiplicity of manuscript evidence available today, textual critics can construct a text that would accurately represent the originals.
I have heard MV proponents state that they believe the KJV is the Word of God, as well as the NJKV, NIV, NASB, RSV, ASV, WEB, YLT, et al. Some have gone as far as to say that “all” versions are the Word of God.
My question is, “How can this be?” If the KJV and the MVs each begin from a different textual basis, how can they both be the Word of God? Either one is and the other isn’t. Either the KJV adds verses or the MVs omit verses; either way, they are not the same.
So, if we can “ retain 100 percent of the inerrant Word of God,” and I believe we can, then it has to be a product of the Received Text or a product of the Critical text. It cannot be both because the two texts are not the same, and “things that are different are not the same.”