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"IS" versus... "was"? 2 Timothy 3:16

Discussion in '2005 Archive' started by use'n d KJB, Jul 1, 2005.

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  1. use'n d KJB

    use'n d KJB New Member

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    "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:"

    Original MSS lovers seem to think this verse says "All scripture was given by inspiration of God,..."

    So what is it? Was it given by inspiration or IS it given by inspiration?
     
    #1 use'n d KJB, Jul 1, 2005
  2. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    I also note that the verse does not say - "All scripture will be given by inspiration of God in 1611..."
     
    #2 NaasPreacher (C4K), Jul 1, 2005
  3. StefanM

    StefanM Well-Known Member
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    Neither.

    A more literal translation would be, "All scripture is God-breathed." The "is" is supplied; it's not in the Greek.
     
    #3 StefanM, Jul 1, 2005
  4. David J

    David J New Member

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    We do not support advanced revelations.

    The KJV is just a translation based on a set of manuscripts. Nothing more and nothing less. It reflects the perfect message of the Word of God.

    To add a special revelation to the KJV(which ever you think is perfect) is to say that God inspired the KJV.

    Scripture was given by inspiration to the qualified men of God the prophets. No translation today is inspired but all faithful translations from any given time period and language reflects God’s perfect preserved message.
     
    #4 David J, Jul 1, 2005
  5. StefanM

    StefanM Well-Known Member
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    You'll note in your handy KJV that "is" is in italics.
     
    #5 StefanM, Jul 1, 2005
  6. use'n d KJB

    use'n d KJB New Member

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    Good point, "is" is in italics.
     
    #6 use'n d KJB, Jul 1, 2005
  7. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    2Ti 3:16 (Geneva Bible):

    For the whole Scripture is giuen by inspiration of God, and is profitable to teache, to conuince, to correct, and to instruct in righteousnesse,
     
    #7 Ed Edwards, Jul 1, 2005
  8. use'n d KJB

    use'n d KJB New Member

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    Something just came to mind. In response to C4K reply:
    When Paul wrote his second epistle to Timothy, was the Book of the Revelation penned by the Ap. John yet?
    So hold on C4K:
    The King James Bible is right, "All Scripture (given and to come) is given by inspiration of God"!!!!

    All scripture is given = presently, currently = The Lively Oracles (Acts 7:38)! Ha!
     
    #8 use'n d KJB, Jul 1, 2005
  9. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    And why is "is" & other words in the KJV in italics? Because the translators ADDED them to make the English read properly.

    I'm not criticizing it, but it goes to show a translation CANNOT improve upon its sources, nor can they be absolutely perfect technically.
     
    #9 robycop3, Jul 1, 2005
  10. StefanM

    StefanM Well-Known Member
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    The clause has no explicit verb in the Greek. The verse says nothing about the time of inspiration; it is merely stating that scripture is inspired.
     
    #10 StefanM, Jul 1, 2005
  11. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    I don't think you really know what you are talking about. I don't know anybody who can read and understand Greek who says the verb is past tense.

    Greek is a reflexive language using synthetic logic. The Greek word translated "is given by inspiration of God" is "theopneustos" which is both a verb and an adjective (something peculiar to synthetic languages which synthesize verbs out of nouns and adjectives and vice versa), and is in the present tense. Look at the next verb in the sentence translated "is profitable" and note it comes from the Greek word "ophelimos" which is an adjective/verb and is also present tense. Both words are actually nouns being used in adjectival substitution as synthetic verbs and are both in the present tense.
     
    #11 TCassidy, Jul 1, 2005
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