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Jews And Gentiles And The Law

KenH

Well-Known Member
The 10 Commandments were given to ancient Israel(a nation which ceased to exist in 70 A.D.), never to the Gentiles. And what was the result of ancient Israel being given the Law and the Gentiles not being given the Law? Exactly the same.

We have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin; as it is written,
There is none righteous, no, not one:
There is none that understandeth,
There is none that seeketh after God.
They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable;
There is none that doeth good, no, not one.
Their throat is an open sepulchre;
With their tongues they have used deceit;
The poison of asps is under their lips:
Whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness:
Their feet are swift to shed blood:
Destruction and misery are in their ways:
And the way of peace have they not known:
There is no fear of God before their eyes. – Romans 3:9-18 KJV

Meaning what?

Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight. – Romans 3:20 KJV

If righteousness come by the law, then Christ is dead in vain. – Galatians 2:21 KJV

And?
But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested. – Romans 3:21 KJV
 
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