John 19:30

[AustinC]

Earlier, at the last supper, Jesus had brought up the New Covenant. In fulfilling the require of the Old Covenant (Mosaic/Sinai Covenant) Jesus may have been stating that the Old Covenant is finished and the New Covenant had begun.

 

[percho]

This verse states:
When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, it is finished
and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost.

So - the phrase "It is finished" - does that mean that is when our sin
was paid for?

Now, we know that Jesus did predict his he resurrection -
but for the sake of this discussion - lets say - He never predicted
his resurrection.
So is it possible - his death alone would have secured our salvation.
Or was the Resurrection required for salvation "be finished"

I think it meant the following was accomplished;

From 2 Cor 5:21 YLT for him who did not know sin, in our behalf He did make sin,
Romans 8:3 YLT for what the law was not able to do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God, His own Son having sent in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, did condemn the sin in the flesh,
Resulting in: James 1:15 KJV Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.
John 19:30 YLT when, therefore, Jesus received the vinegar, he said, 'It hath been finished;' and having bowed the head, gave up the spirit. [DIED]

What followed?

Romans 4:25 YLT who was delivered up because of our offences, and was raised up because of our being declared righteous..
From 2 Cor 5:21 YLT that we may become the righteousness of God in him.
Romans 8:1,2,4 YLT There is, then, now no condemnation to those in Christ Jesus, who walk not according to the flesh, but according to the Spirit; for the law of the Spirit of the life in Christ Jesus did set me free from the law of the sin and of the death; that the righteousness of the law may be fulfilled in us, who do not walk according to the flesh, but according to the Spirit.

 

[Van]

You make no sense. Christ was forsaken by God the Father on the Cross. Either He is still forsaken or He is no longer forsaken by God the Father on the cross. Or you have some other view. I know my view.

1) Did the fact your first three verses were non-germane make sense? Yes
2) Did the fact that all scripture fulfillment had been accomplished before Christ said it is finished make sense? Yes
3) Therefore, since the Messiah had fulfilled the prophecy of asking "why have you forsaken Me," before saying it is finished, that statement was not about fulfilling scripture, but about completing His mission as the Lamb of God. That makes sense.

 

[37818]

1) Did the fact your first three verses were non-germane make sense? Yes
2) Did the fact that all scripture fulfillment had been accomplished before Christ said it is finished make sense? Yes
3) Therefore, since the Messiah had fulfilled the prophecy of asking "why have you forsaken Me," before saying it is finished, that statement was not about fulfilling scripture, but about completing His mission as the Lamb of God. That makes sense.

Those are your views. Not mine, in that we do not agree on every point. What I understood has been stated, and so has your disagreements.

 

[AustinC]

Re: Matthew, Mark or

Those are your views. Not mine, in that we do not agree on every point. What I understood has been stated, and so has your disagreements.

Indeed, that is the nature of a discussion board.

 

[37818]

Indeed, that is the nature of a discussion board.

It can be good when we can come to some kind of common understanding. But that is not always possible, do to different presuppositions.

 

[Van]

1) Did the fact your first three verses were non-germane make sense? Yes
2) Did the fact that all scripture fulfillment had been accomplished before Christ said it is finished make sense? Yes
3) Therefore, since the Messiah had fulfilled the prophecy of asking "why have you forsaken Me," before saying it is finished, that statement was not about fulfilling scripture, but about completing His mission as the Lamb of God. That makes sense.

SNIP
Those are your views. Not mine, in that we do not agree on every point. What I understood has been stated, and so has your disagreements.

Did we see why those verses were germane? Nope
Did we see why Christ would refer to the same accomplishment twice? Nope

What I understand has been stated. Nuff said

 

[37818]

My understanding, Christ's death on the cross has two parts. Payment for our sins and His physical death for His resurrection.

Did Christ die two deaths?

 

[MrW]

The atonement was finished on the cross.

The resurrection was God’s proof that the atonement was sufficient.

 

[MB]

This verse states:
When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, it is finished
and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost.

So - the phrase "It is finished" - does that mean that is when our sin
was paid for?

Now, we know that Jesus did predict his he resurrection -
but for the sake of this discussion - lets say - He never predicted
his resurrection.
So is it possible - his death alone would have secured our salvation.
Or was the Resurrection required for salvation "be finished"

In my opinion His crucifixion, death, and resurrection are is all together our Salvation. We all need to believe the whole thing. His crucifixion and death paid for our sins. His Resurrection tells me that even I will be resurrected,just as he was.
MB