just curious

Why, indeed! It's pretty obvious, ain't it? Satan is on a roll.

 

Don't worry none~me too. And old "Arthur"-itus lives with me constantly(but this sure beats trying to hold a pen). God will bless your efforts.

 

i wldn't know. perhaps the 100 others have been corrected over time, just as the KJB possibly corrected the Bishops', Douay, n Geneva Bibles.

 

Because the KJV is the most universally recognized English Bible - and has the most recognized errors of translation as well.

 

Do you want a doctrinal error, a translational error, or a textual error?

 

In the KJV, 1 Tim 6:10 says "For the love of money is the root of all evil:". Other versions have "For the love of money is a root of all kinds of evil" or similar.

Now, it can be argued that the KJV is a valid translation of the Greek. Technically, this is true, but the Greek does not *have* to be translated that way. The second reading above is also a technically accurate translation.

Yet the KJV's reading results in a doctrinal error. For it teaches that all evil has the love of money as its root, but it is evident (within scripture and without) that is is not true. Rape does not have the love of money as its root. Pride usually does not either. Same with a multitude of other evils. In fact, the verse makes evil impossible before money was invented to be loved. Yet we know there was evil as far back as the garden of evil, and even further. How did this evil have the "love of money" as its root?

That should be enough, but it even gets more interesting when we compare another verse from the KJV. Isa 45:7 (KJV) says "I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things." (How the Onlyists would have a field day if this reading was in the NIV instead of the KJV ). If the LORD creates evil, but the love of money is the root of all evil, then we must deduce that the evil the Lord creates is because of his love for money.

Of course, that's all ridiculous. Instead, 1 Tim 6:10 is a simple doctrinal error in the KJV, the result of a poor (but technically accurate) choice of words to translate into. The alternate reading I listed above is also a technically accurate translation, but avoids the doctrinal error.

Brian

[ July 14, 2002, 11:43 PM: Message edited by: BrianT ]

 

I totally disagree, but for the sake of argument, suppose you are right. How is the love of money the root of all evil if we limit the passage to the "dispensation of grace"? Do you believe that if something doesn't have the love of money as its root, it isn't evil?

 

It is one thing to say I'm wrong, and another to explain how I'm wrong. Please, go ahead.

 

God forbid: yea, let God be true, but every man a liar; as it is written, That thou mightest be justified in thy sayings, and mightest overcome when thou art judged. {Romans 3:4, KJV}

The error is at the beginning. The phrase is 'May it not be;' not "God forbid." The name of God is NOT in the text. There are at least 10 other verses in the epistles with this error in the KJV.

 

What did the guide correct?

 

archaisms:

"So went Satan forth from the presence of the LORD..."
"Then said his wife unto him ..."
" In all this did not Job sin with his lips."

Speak this way, do you? You are Yoda only if Star Wars from!

 

Is an archaism an error?

 

Pastor Larry, Bro. Coley is my pastor.Now why don't you tell him how he is teaching me unsound doctrine,and all the other stuff you said about him. Take it easy on them Bro.Coley

 

Because the KJV is the most universally recognized English Bible - and has the most recognized errors of translation as well.</font>[/QUOTE]