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Kay said:Now unto him that is able to keep you from falling, and to present you faultless before the presence of his glory with exceeding joy" (KJV).
Doesn't this prove OSAS is incorrect? Keep you from falling from what?
Pastor Bob: The context of the passage reveals that it is not salvation from which He keeps you from falling, but rather from apostasy. He can keep you from "stumbling" over error.
Now unto him that is able to keep you from falling, and to present you faultless before the presence of his glory with exceeding joy"
RB: And if God is not willing for them to perish they will not perish.
Helen: Romans 8:9 states that those who belong to Christ are controlled by the Holy Spirit. Romans 8:29-30 states that those who love Him are predestined to be transformed to the image of Christ. Philippians 1:6 states that He is faithful to complete the good work begun in us. Christ Himself stated that He has not lost one.
Helen: The transformation may come more slowly for some than others, but those who are controlled by the Holy Spirit WILL obey Christ. The heart, the entire life, is changed. Learning to listen, learning to obey, is a matter of spiritual maturity. The salvation is an accomplished fact once one has been born again in Christ.
Helen; Obedience is an outworking of salvation, not a prerequisite for it.
Heavenly Pilgrim said:
HP: How do arrive at that conclusion? “God is not willing that ANY should perish, but that ALL should come to repentance.” There is not the least shred of evidence that the ‘any’ or the ‘all’ is only speaking of the elect. Those holding to OSAS may indeed desire to read that into the text to support their presupposition of OSAS, but it is not established by reason or context.
Kay said:"And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him;"
Hebrews 5:9
But here it says we have eternal salvation if we obey him. What about those who do not. Won't they lose their salvation? Obey I think is an important word
HP: I beg to differ with you here. OSAS has been developed as a direct result of Calvinistic beliefs. I do not mean to be offensive, but I believe that any honest observer of the facts could support that statement.Helen: Heavenly Pilgrim, please do not consider that the OSAS doctrine is something invented by Calvinism. Calvinism is wrong, but the Bible guarantees the power of Christ to save completely those who come to Him and are born again.
RB: I believe even that the understanding you have of the text you have from the integrity of your heart, and not some devious desire to maintaining a theology above the teaching of Scripture.
So my question to you is, since I have derived my understanding of the limitation of "all" would you like me to explain it to you?
Heavenly Pilgrim said:
HP: Kinder words have not been spoken. I hope in some way I might reflect the same attitude to others that you have reflected toward me. Thank you! :thumbs:
By all means share with us how you arrive at your conclusions. Put my attitude to the test.![]()
RB: When I look to understand the meaning of a passage I can approach it either philosophically or contextually, or both. I usually do both, but submit my reasonings about the text to the text itself. i.e. Just because I don't understand it doesn't make it untrue or unaccaptable.
RB: In the larger context of 2 Peter 3 we have 2 Peter 1:1 "Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ:"
I think it is worth noting that the Apostle is wring to believers. Now, this does not automatically mean he is in 2 Peter 3:9, but it is the broader context.
RB: To get the context of a passage or in our case, the use of a word "all" and "any" which in the Greek and English can take on a varied semantic range. In other words, it can mean every single one, or can mean every single one in a sub-group. This is just the nature of words. What I want to know is how God is using the word in 2 Peter 3.
HP: Here, although you are not stating your philosophy directly, are implying it via the presupposition of OSAS which defines and confines who a believer is and what it means to be a believer. You are subconsciously if not consciously, applying this presupposition to the text. It is a controlling philosophical notion in your case that you use to direct any and all outcomes of your theological or scriptural studies I have witnessed so far.
HP: Here again OSAS is going to determine your findings. OSAS implies that there are no conditions to salvation, that one cannot lose their salvation, and therefore if this is written to believers the “all” or ‘any in the text can only be speaking to the subgroup of OSAS believers, again because OSAS is true. You are reasoning in a circle via your philosophical beliefs of what eternal salvation must mean, that it cannot have understood conditions due to the fact that in the passage you are looking at or another, the conditions happened to not be stated. Your presuppositions of OSAS are again driving your conclusions. Your underlying philosophical positions are showing.
I will stop here so as not to get too long. I believe it should be obvious to te reader that indeed your presuppositions of OSAS is the driving force of your philosophical approach to the text.
[/QUOTE]Bear in mind ALL of us approach Scripture with philosophical underpinnings. It is IMPOSSSIBLE to otherwise. I am NOT being critical of having philosophical underpinnings, I am trying to get us to see that it is in fact philosophical underpinnings such as OSAS that are at the heart of the questions concerning the texts we are examining, and that one must first establish OSAS to be true before using it to guide ones findings of the text. So far that has not been accomplished.
Heavenly Pilgrim said:HP: My questions would be, when one falls into apostasy is he really still born again?
The Greek supports the notion of stumbling; the context support the notion of stumbling over error.Where in the text do you find the notion of ‘stumbling over error?’
I'm afraid any answer here would be met with the "presupposition" card.Even if that is in the text, how do you arrive at the conclusion tat one that stumbles has not in fact rejected the hope that once they held and as such are without hope?
HP: Very well. Let’s try again. You start this 'semantic range' study stating that it is ‘written to believers.” What does being a ‘believer’ imply to you? Remember this thread is about falling.RB: Unless I missed something here HP, all your doing is saying that I have done so without actually proving it. All I have said concerng the text is that it is written to believers, those who have obtained like precious faith. The text itself it defining the audience.
Pastor Bob: I'm afraid any answer here would be met with the "presupposition" card.