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Matt 27: 46

Discussion in '2000-02 Archive' started by Travis1980, Nov 12, 2002.

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  1. Travis1980

    Travis1980 New Member

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    #1 Travis1980, Nov 12, 2002
  2. Frogman

    Frogman <img src="http://www.churches.net/churches/fubc/Fr

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    I had never heard of this before, the first seems to have an universalist agenda, the second, I haven't figured out yet, but neither seem to prove any significant difference in the meaning of the scripture.

    God Bless.
    Bro. Dallas
     
    #2 Frogman, Nov 12, 2002
  3. Jim1999

    Jim1999 <img src =/Jim1999.jpg>

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    Frankly, I have not seen this verse so translated.
    I read the chap's bio and I am not certain I would trust anything he has to say.

    Why would Christ state that He was abandoned? Some suggest it is the human Jesus giving up the last of humanity in the act of redemption, and of course, God would, because of His very nature, have to abandon sin. If this understanding be true, then the KJV makes perfect sense.

    Cheers,

    Jim

    [ November 12, 2002, 11:09 PM: Message edited by: Jim1999 ]
     
    #3 Jim1999, Nov 12, 2002
  4. Aaron

    Aaron Member
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    I have not seen any English translation that would render it any other way. Man, I love how everyone is a language expert when the straightforward readings don't line up.
     
    #4 Aaron, Nov 12, 2002
  5. BrianT

    BrianT New Member

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    I have Lamsa's English translation of the Peshitta (the Bible in Aramaic). The Peshitta is the Bible of preference among Christians from approx the Mediterranean to into India. This is a highly respected translation and a highly respected translator, from all sides of the Bible version debate. It sometimes differs from our versions translated from the Hebrew and Greek, and sometimes in very interesting ways, but it is an excellent Bible.

    His translation here is "My God, my God, for this I was spared!" He also has a footnote, which reads "This was my destiny."
     
    #5 BrianT, Nov 12, 2002
  6. rsr

    rsr <b> 7,000 posts club</b>
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    The NET Bible treats the passage as a quote from Psalms 22:1

    Try replacing "reject" with "spare" or "kept" in that context. Hmm. Seems out of place.

    If you back up on this guy's page, you'll get a better idea of where he's coming from:

    http://wahiduddin.net/index.html

    Now, the Rev. Clapp's translation may or may not be correct; that's a matter for the translation forum to chew over.

    Anyone see any warning signs in the statement of faith?

    http://www.cffm.org/index_sm.htm

    [ November 12, 2002, 11:49 PM: Message edited by: rsr ]
     
    #6 rsr, Nov 12, 2002
  7. rkbo

    rkbo New Member

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    If you think about it logicaly wouldn't Jesus know "why" he was being forsaken.
    1459 egkataleipo (eng-kat-al-i'-po);

    from 1722 and 2641; to leave behind in some place, i.e. (in a good sense) let remain over, or (in a bad sense) to desert:

    KJV-- forsake, leave.

    It looks more like he was letting the people know that Psalms 22 was being enacted as they looked on.

    I have a question. Did the ancient Jews call Psalms 22, Psalms 22? Or did they call it "MY God my God, why hast thou forsaken me?"
     
    #7 rkbo, Nov 12, 2002
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