I am currently doing a study on the book of Matthew & came across the debate regarding Matt 2:15 use of Hosea 11:1. How do most of you see the connection—or what best explains Matt’s use of the verse----predictive prophecy, sensus plenior, exposition in Judaism, prefigurement typology, analogical correspondence, or something else? I can honestly see various possibilities on this issue & am not dogmatic on any view—so I’d love to see what others think.