Matthew 28:16 - 20 Have we been wrong?

It makes even more sense if one stops denying that God can work through baptism to make new disciples.

 

If this applies only to the eleven, then then failed, because we know that they did not succeed in going out to the whole world, let alone the known world. In fact, the greatest instrument of the Great Commission, imo, was Paul, and he wasn't even there when the Great Commission was given.

The context here is "baptizing then in the name of...". While it's true that the word "baptize" is a translation of the Greek "baptizo" which means cleanse/wash/immerse, it references the Jewish Mikveh cleansing ritual. Jews would immerse themselves in a pool of water as a part of ritual cleansing. This is the ritual John the Baptist was conducting when Jesus came to him. John was using an existing Jewish ritual, but unknowingly infusing it with new purpose. Since we westerners aren't familiar with the Jewish mikveh, we tend to lose the cultural significance of it.

I think you're very astute to look at this verse and attempt to do so without any existing preconceptions. Good work. Even though I come to the traditional conclusion, I think you are making a very good point here.

 

The problem is that Matt 28 has to be taken in conjunction with Acts 2 which is what happens as a direct result of that great comission.

What we see is "more than 12" evangelizing and we also see them speaking of water baptism.

So instead of just one point on a line - we actually have a number of confirming texts "showing" how the NT saints took that comission.

But you are right about one thing -- there is a big surprise in MAtt 28 for a lot of Christians today who would deny the words of Christ in the Gospels.

Christ said to TEACH others what HE taught them. Then we see the disciples WRITE out what HE taught them in the form of the Gospel accounts.

This is where the baptismal-regeneration folks fall on their swords because they are foremost among those who claim that the pre-cross Words of Christ are meaningless for us today.

They do a cut-and-paste (that is mostly a cut) where all of scriptural accounts/doctrine/instruction pre-cross is abolished.

In Christ,

Bob

 

Even the Catholic church admits that full water Baptism WAS the method used in the first century by the NT saints. They admit that it was an evolutionary process (error evolving in my view) that created the ideas for other modes of baptism.

The history is that almost every (in fact "every) non-Catholic group today immerged from groups that left Catholicism. So having Catholic roots the "practices" of those groups retain to some degree those old traditions.

In my view that explains the diversity.

As those churches go back to the Bible for their basis of practice they drop the Catholic traditions.

In Christ,

Bob

 

Bob said: The history is that almost every (in fact "every) non-Catholic group today immerged from groups that left Catholicism.
__________________________________________________

This is simply not true.
The Baptist faith did NOT 'immerged' (sic) from the Catholics.

That notion is revisionist history and has no basis in fact.

Briguy;
Good observation. Your thoughts perhaps could apply as a secondary interpretation of this message. To be 'immersed' in God. Nice!

In HIS service;
Jim

 

This is the only text in the gospels that tells the discipels to go Baptize - and certainly the only one in the Gospels after the cross - launching the Apostles on the NT Church mission that includes the subject of Baptism.

So when we see them doing it in Acts 2 - we can't simply say "coincidence".

And so as I was saying - even the RCC admits to the Water Baptism - full emmersion method being the actual one used in the first century by NT saints.

So although you see the RC influence in churches today handing them something other than the first century NT church practice that the RCC itself admits to -- that does not mean that in the first century there was a lot of different ways to Baptize. Today's evolution 2000 years later is not a snapshot of the first century practice.

In Christ,

Bob

 

Cannot cover all the things in one post.

The end of the Gospel of Matthew is a beautiful picture of The New Testament Assembly--the Bride of Christ. She is visible and local. Jesus did not post His Commission on the bulletin board in the town square. He gave the power(gk. exousia, i.e. authority to carry on and carry out in His absence to His Assembly. That vested authority was given to the assembly--not to a man. This authority remains vested in His assembly even through today--until He returns for His Bride.

There is a lot of confusion about "baptizo". The word was not "translated" into English--it was "transliterated"--that is, carried over without translation. The same thing was done with "angelos" which means messenger. Baptizo means to dip, plunge or immerse. It does not mean wash or cleanse--there are other Gk words for washing. One would be immersed "in"water not "with" water--another intentional oversight on the parts of the pedobaptist sprinklers who were translating scripture in the 16th and 17th centuries.
Further, there is nothing analagous about OT washings and NT Immersion. Immersion pictures death, burial and resurrection. How one pictures such by pouring/sprinkling "holy" water on the forehead is difficult to imagine.
Another further: immersion is not analagous to circumcision either. What about the women?

Some folks keep referring to water baptism as if there is some other sort of baptism. Scripture says "One Lord, One Faith, One Baptism". What part of ONE do we not understand? What about the Day of Pentecost? Yes, indeed, the Assembly got immersed in The Spirit, The Holy--and She still is--that "Another Comforter" still abides with The Bride, keeping her pure and undefiled, without spot or wrinkle or any such thing. This is the difference between real assemblies and churches of the world--i.e. the indwelling of the Holy Spirit.

Jesus is coming for His Bride--she is ready--are we?

Even so, come, Lord Jesus.

Selah,

Bro. James

 

Matt 28:18 And Jesus came and spoke to them, saying, “All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth. 19 Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, 20 teaching them to observe all things that I have commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age.” Amen

The parallel account of this in Mark 16:15-16, And He said to them, “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature. 16 He who believes and is baptized will be saved; but he who does not believe will be condemned.

Question, what group of people are excluded from "all nations"?

What group of people are excluded from "all the world"?

Jesus specifically said, "teaching them to observe all things that I have commanded you

What had he commanded them? To go teach, baptize, and teach them, "to observe all things that I have commanded you"

Yes, it was given to the apostles, but it started a chain that continues until now for us to go teach, baptize and teach, and those who are taught are to go teach, baptize, and teach.

The gospel was preached to the Jews first and also to the Greeks (Rom 1:16).

All are baptized into ONE body, whether Jew or Greek (I Cor 12:13).

How did that happen on the day of Pentecost in Acts 2?

The Apostles preached to the Jews and they believed, else they would have never asked "What shall we do?" in verse 37.

Peter did not say, you don't have to do anything, only believe.

No, Peter gave them instructions, "Repent and be baptized in the name of Jesus for the remission of sins" - Acts 2:38

Those who received the word were baptized and added to them - Verse 41

Added to what? Verse 47 says the Lord was adding those who were being saved to the Church.

Remember, I Cor 12:13 says we are baptized into one body and the body is the church (Eph 1:22-23, Col 1:18). Acts 2 also shows how we are added to the church, at baptism.

Someone, I don't remember who, I think it may have been Bob, incorrectly stated that this commission (in Matt 28) was given under the old law. Well, it was given after His death and resurrection. It first began to be carried out in Acts 2.

The purpose of baptism given in Acts 2:38 was for the remission of sin. The only other time this phrase is used, not in conjuction with baptism, is in Matt 26:28 where Jesus said His blood was shed for many "for the remission of sins."

Most folks have no trouble understanding what "for the remission of sins" means in Matt 26:28 but will try and twist and turn the real meaning of it in Acts 2:38.

Paul sums it up nicely when he says, "For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus. For as many of you as were baptized into Christ have put on Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus. - Gal 3:26-28

ALL includes Jew and Greek, and he specifically states such. All entered INTO Christ the same way, through faith they had been baptized INTO Christ.

Baptism always means immersion (in water) unless something in the context dictates otherwise. That is understood. The eunuch's statement, "See, here is water, what hinders me from being baptized" shows biblical baptism is in water. (Acts 8)

Ananias told Saul, Arise and be baptized and wash away your sins, calling on the name of the Lord.

Water baptism was a command, carried out by men. HS baptism was a promise done by Jesus.

There is just one baptism today according to Eph 4:5. There are not 2 baptisms in effect, but only one. Since the chain is unbroken, we are commanded to teach, baptize, and teach. Clearly, he is talking about water baptism, since that is the only one man can perform.

 

Brian - when Jesus speaks to His disciples he speaks to "all who would believe through their witness" as well.

If this were not so - nobody would evangelize but the 12 and we could all just toss the Gospels out the window.

Secondly - There is no such thing as "Baptism" into fellowship with the Christian Apostles post-Cross that is NOT "Believer's Baptism".

The "REPENT and Be Baptized" message of the Apostles did not "change" from what it was right after the cross - at Pentecost.

Christ tells them to wait for the Holy Spirit and then GO! GO! GO! in Acts 1.

He does not say -- you have a fake Gospel for now - but after you get a "real Gospel" then start Baptizing "for real".

The message is GOOD TO GO right out of the gate.

The Disciples are not "rebaptized" nor are any who are baptized in Acts 2 -- following that event.

Their baptism is "golden" as it were.

In Christ,

Bob

 

Act 10:47 Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Spirit as well as we?
Act 10:48 And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. Then prayed they him to tarry certain days.


Hmmmmmmmmmm, why did they recieve the Holy Spirit?


Because they WERE SAVED.

thankyou and God Bless

 

Act 18:8 And Crispus, the chief ruler of the synagogue, believed on the Lord with all his house; and many of the Corinthians hearing believed, and were baptized.

Belivers Baptism?

 

1Co 1:17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.


what??????

 

Of course. Why would a non-believer submit to baptism? Baptism is always for believers.

Even Jesus said, He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved.

Was Jesus kidding? Mistaken? Did he really mean something else? Did he mean what he said?

Why were the Corinthians baptized?

 

Did Paul baptize any of them? YES! Why? Were the Corinthians baptized? You know they were from your other post.

There were divisions in the Corinthian Church. Paul was saying that for them to belong to him, he would have to be crucified for them and they would have to be baptized in his name.

For us to belong to Christ, he has to be crucified for us and we have to be baptized in his name.

That is the ONLY way we can get INTO Christ. You cannot find another way to get INTO Christ. Search the scriptures and see what you find.

We are baptized INTO Christ. To claim that baptism is not required for salvation is to claim that being in Christ is not required for salvation. Surely you don't believe that!

God will take vengence on those who don't obey the gospel. How do we obey the gospel? First the gospel is the death, burial and resurrection. How do we obey that. We obey a form of that (Rom 6:3-4,17) in baptism. That is how we obey the gospel.

He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved - so simple you would have to have help to misunderstand it.

 

Concerning Mark 16, usually those who question the validity do so because of the plain teaching concerning baptism. It is true that two manuscripts (Sinaiticus and Vaticanus) do not include Mark 16:9-20. It is also true that one or both of these same manuscripts also omit Genesis 1:1-31:28; 2 Kings 2:5-7, 10-13; Psalm 106-137; Matthew 3; 16:2-3; Luke 6:1; 22:43-44; 23:34; John 5:4-5; 8:1-11; 9:38; 19:33-34; 21:25; Acts 8:37; Romans 16:24; 1 Timothy; 2 Timothy; Titus; Philemon; Hebrews 9:8-13:25; Revelation, and much more (ie. in the gospels alone, Vaticanus leaves out 237 words, 452 clauses, and 748 whole sentences). Are we willing to throw out these passages also? Furthermore, these manuscripts do not even agree with each other, let alone the other available manuscripts that do include it. They are different from each other in over 5,000 places in the New Testament alone. They were written in Classical Greek rather than Koine (common) Greek (which the original New Testament was written in).

Those who question the validity of Mark 16 usually have an agenda.