Genesis 3:16 in KJV and ASV records God saying unto the woman Eve, “...thy desire shall be to thy husband, and he shall rule over thee.” Most English Bibles have something comparable to that, which implies desire or longing in a positive sense. The ESV goes in a completely different direction:
[Note: The EXB is the only one I've found that seems to agree with ESV, with the note “the word implies a desire to control; 4:7”.]
Life experience might cause us to believe both meanings are true, but what does the statement itself mean?To the woman he said, “I will surely multiply your pain in childbearing; in pain you shall bring forth children. Your desire shall be contrary to your husband, but he shall rule over you.” [bold emphasis mine]
[Note: The EXB is the only one I've found that seems to agree with ESV, with the note “the word implies a desire to control; 4:7”.]