There is no word and or by in the Greek. The question is with the grammar.Did I add "and" to Philippians 2:7? I explained it using an "and" to highlight the disjunction.
If "taking on" and "being made" were verbs, an implicit "and" would make sense.
However, since they are verbals (modal participles), not verbs, they function as adverbs. Thus, they are not conjuctive to "emptied" but rather they modify it.
Those translations use "by" because they understand that these participles are adverbs. There is no explicit or implicit conjuction.However, here is how it reads, but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. Did put an "and" between Himself, and "taking?" Nope Now it is true that several translations add the "by" such as the NIV and ESV, but that is not how the text reads.
