Graham argues that God did NOt say "this is the Sabbath" but rather stated the commandment as "pick one day in seven".
Bob points out that in Exodus 16 God said "TOMORROW is the Sabbath" and in the weekly cycle manna fell on 6 days but not on THE seventh-day for 40 years!!
Graham then switches points -
grahame said:
You still haven't answered why Pentecost was on a Sunday. This also was set down in the law.
Pentecost was 50 days after Passover - SOMETIMES passover was on a Friday - sometimes it was not. You can hardly argue that Pentecost was teaching a WEEKLY first-day observance in the OT.
Also why do you not recognise that the lawwas clearly for Israel and not for the rest of mankind.
I see so Christ said "The Sabbath was MADE FOR MANKIND" Mark 2:27
but Graham says "the Sabbath was NOT MADE FOR MANKIND"????
the choice in that case is left as an exercise for the reader.
In 1Cor 7 we are told "Neither circumcision no non-circumcision is of any mattter but what matters is the KEEPING of the Commandments of God".
In Rom 3:31 Paul says "Do we then make VOID the LAw of God by our faith?? God forbid!! In fact we ESTABLISH the Law of God"...
Yet you argue "we pay no attention at aLL to the Law of God"
Where do you get that?
This is clear because of what God says at the beginning of the commandments. The law was not written for Gentiles originally, but for Israel.
both Romans 3 and Galatians 3 flatly deny this. BOTH of them argue that the Law BINDS ALL MANKIND showing that ALL are sinners.
(In the case of the lost)
And in Heb 8 we are told that the LAW of God is "WRITTEN on the heart" under the New Covenant.
So it is applied to ALL the WORLD in one way in Romans 3 and Galatians 3 and it is applied to all saints in James 2 and Heb 8.
Many things changed with the coming of Christ. For christ is the end of the law for believers. (Rom 10:4)
Rom 10 fits with Rom 7 (quoting the ten commandments) and Rom 13 (quoting the Ten Commandments) and Romans 3 (endorsing the Law of God) because the term for "end" is the term for "goal" or point. It means that the Law points to Christ -- it does NOT mean to contradict the rest of Romans by arguing that Christ abolished HIS OWN WORD (Hint: His Word is LAW).
In other words he is the fulfilment of the law. Everything is centred in him. He is the resurrection and the life.
Indeed - He FULFILLED the command of Lev 19:18 that we must Love our Neighbor as ourself - but FULFILL does not mean ABOLISH.
He FULFILLED the command of Deut 6:5 to Love God with all of our heart -- but FULFILL does not mean ABOLISH.
As 1John 2 points out "the one who SAYS He knows Christ aught also to WALK as Christ WALKED".
He is the eternal Sabbath, the antitype for the shadow which was the Sabbath of the Old Testament.
Text please.
We have a reference to the Lord's day in Revelation chapter 1. You must come up with an explanation of that if that wasn't the seventh day.
It was the Seventh-day because as Christ said "The Son of Man is LORD of the Sabbath" and as Isaiah says Is 58 the "Sabbath is the HOLY day of the LORD".
There is N

THER assignment for "LORD's Day" given in all of scripture.
Those who WANT that day to apply to something OTHER than what scripture says - have a long way to go.
If it was the Sabbath as you contend, Then why did not John use the word "Sabbath"?
He used the term Christ used for it in Mark 2:27 and the one that Isaiah used in Isaiah 58 and the one that Sabbath Keeping Christians often use for it.
Do Adventist replace the word Sabbath with "Lord's day"? Or do they still use the name Sabbath.
They use BOTH as did John.
In the gospel of John we find him referring to it as Sabbath and in Rev as "The Lord's Day". John 19:31 and about 20 times in the Gospel of John he references "Sabbath".
Hint: John is writing long AFTER the resurrection.
I contend that John used the term "Lord's day" because it was the day the Lord rose from the dead,
Indeed - an assertion that you can not prove from scripture. I prefer my doctrines "sola scriptura".
In Christ,
Bob