Psalm 110:1 "my Lord"

[The Biblicist]

Readers,

Take your strong's concordance and look up the words underlined and in bold and you will see that Jehovah/Yahweh/YHVH is the one addressing "my Lord/adonai." The Hebrew proves this. The English proves this. The Greek text in the New Testament proves this is the grammatical structure.

A. Hebrew - Psa. 110:1 ¶ <07272> לרגליך <01916> הדם <0341> איביך <07896> אשׂית <05704> עד <03225> לימיני <03427> שׂב <0113> לאדני <03068> יהוה <05002> נאם <04210> מזמור <01732> לדוד (110:1)



B. OT English - Psa. 110:1 ¶ «A Psalm of David.» The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool. - AV

1 ¶ «A Psalm of David.» Jehovah saith unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, Until I make thine enemies thy footstool. - ASV

1 ¶ <A Psalm. Of David.> The Lord said to my lord, Be seated at my right hand, till I put all those who are against you under your feet. - BBB

1 ¶ «A Psalm of David.» The LORD saith unto my lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool. - ERV

1 ¶ «By David, a psalm.» The Eternal saith unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I place thy enemies as a stool for thy feet. - Leeser

1 ¶ «A Psalm of David.» The LORD said to my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thy enemies thy footstool. - Webster

etc.,etc., etc.


C. NT English -Mt 22:44 The LORD said to my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thy enemies thy footstool?

Mr 12:36 For David himself said by the Holy Spirit, The LORD said to my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thy enemies thy footstool.

Ac 2:34 For David did not ascend into the heavens: but he saith himself, The LORD said to my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand,



N.T. Greek matches the Septuigent Greek of Psalm 110:1 and the grammar demands the translation "The LORD (JHVH) saith unto my Lord (Adonai).

Seve has only his FERTILE IMAGINATION to stand on. The Hebrew and Greek grammar repudiates him. The English translations repudiate him. Every single quote in the New Testament repudiates him and Jesus said that David spoke these words "BY THE SPIRIT" and so the Spirit of God repudiate Seve's interpretation that "my Lord" is YHVH and "The LORD" is "adonai".

 

[The Biblicist]

Readers,

Take your strong's concordance and look up the words underlined and in bold and you will see that Jehovah/Yahweh/YHVH is the one addressing "my Lord/adonai." The Hebrew proves this. The English proves this. The Greek text in the New Testament proves this is the grammatical structure.

A. Hebrew - Psa. 110:1 ¶ <07272> לרגליך <01916> הדם <0341> איביך <07896> אשׂית <05704> עד <03225> לימיני <03427> שׂב <0113> לאדני <03068> יהוה <05002> נאם <04210> מזמור <01732> לדוד (110:1)



B. OT English - Psa. 110:1 ¶ «A Psalm of David.» The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool. - AV

1 ¶ «A Psalm of David.» Jehovah saith unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, Until I make thine enemies thy footstool. - ASV

1 ¶ <A Psalm. Of David.> The Lord said to my lord, Be seated at my right hand, till I put all those who are against you under your feet. - BBB

1 ¶ «A Psalm of David.» The LORD saith unto my lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool. - ERV

1 ¶ «By David, a psalm.» The Eternal saith unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I place thy enemies as a stool for thy feet. - Leeser

1 ¶ «A Psalm of David.» The LORD said to my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thy enemies thy footstool. - Webster

etc.,etc., etc.


C. NT English -Mt 22:44 The LORD said to my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thy enemies thy footstool?

Mr 12:36 For David himself said by the Holy Spirit, The LORD said to my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thy enemies thy footstool.

Ac 2:34 For David did not ascend into the heavens: but he saith himself, The LORD said to my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand,



N.T. Greek matches the Septuigent Greek of Psalm 110:1 and the grammar demands the translation "The LORD (JHVH) saith unto my Lord (Adonai).

Seve has only his FERTILE IMAGINATION to stand on. The Hebrew and Greek grammar repudiates him. The English translations repudiate him. Every single quote in the New Testament repudiates him and Jesus said that David spoke these words "BY THE SPIRIT" and so the Spirit of God repudiate Seve's interpretation that "my Lord" is YHVH and "The LORD" is "adonai".

Originally Posted by The Biblicist
David says that it was JHVH that is speaking and He is speaing to "my ADONAI" not to my "JHVH

My above words are supposedly Seve's only proof that JHVH might be the term translated the Lower case "My Lord." According to Seve this opens a crack in the door that it might only be David's PERSONAL opinion rather than what God's Word actual says and means. Seve is inferring David may have spoke ill advisedly and therefore we should not take David's opinion as God's opinion.


However, David not only says it but Jesus says David said it BY THE SPIRIT and therefore it is not his personal opion but God's opinion:

Mr 12:36 For David himself said by the Holy Spirit, The LORD said to my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thy enemies thy footstool.

David spoke by inspiration. Jesus confirms David spoke by Inspiration. Peter confirmed what David said by inspiration - Acts 2:34

What does Seve do? He rejects David - an inspired man. He rejects the Holy Spirit's confirmation of what David said. He rejects Christ's confirmation of what David said. He rejects Peter's confirmation of what David said (Acts 2:34).

In short, Seve REJECTS THE WORD OF GOD because the Word of God REPEATEDLY states that it is JHVH that is speaking and it is "my adonai" that is being spoken to - which is Christ! Hence, JHVH is in this passage (which is repeated several times in the New Testament) represents someone in the Godhead who is not Jesus Christ, not the eternal Word of God.

 

[Seve]

Here's the actual quotes.... I save it anticipating that you going to have my thread close to cover up your Biblical illiteracy as far as spititual knowledge is concerned.

For your review...

Again.......... In Matthew 22 we read the following... Inserstion are mine for presentation.

41 While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them,
42 Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The son of David.
43 He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying,
44 The LORD (?) said unto my (David’) Lord (YHVH), Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?
45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?
46 And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions.

Conclusion:

No man knows the name of the invisible Almighty God Father at this time.

While the term “Lord” is used interchangeably to address the Title of both the Father and the Son, I am very much aware of the rendition of the Hebrew Scholars in ref. to the cited text above (Psalms 110). That's exactly why the issue has been brought forth to this thread (topic).

The questions, however, that need to be answered to prove your case… in analyzing the context of the actual text itself…. are the following.

1) Who was the actual Speaker of the cited text, ref. Psalms 110 in the Old Testament?
2) Who was the Speaker’ Lord..... referring to as… “ MY LORD” in the Old Testament?
3) When was the fulfillment of the prophetic vision took place, after Christ ressurection?

Now if you can honestly answer the questions I brought forth above correctly, then, your objection to my posts will have a basis to stand on, for a change.

However, let me warn you that only willingly ignorant will always stumble to this revelation of Biblical Truth.

David says that it was JHVH that is speaking and He is speaing to "my ADONAI" not to my "JHVH


... Again, the speaker is YHVH (LORD) not Adonai ("my Lord")

Dear Readers,

Obviously, that’s another malicious vain attempt by Biblicist to cover up their flawed doctrinal understanding of the Scripture…..distorting and twisting the text in attempt to response to our simple questions above.

However, based on Biblicist own answer (see underlined quote) above, clearly……. regardless how hard he tried to twist the text to suit his likings – Biblicist is forced to admit to the fact, that the actual Speaker of the text was David himself….. telling us the story about his prophetic vision he had in the OT…… regarding the conversation that took place between the LORD and his (David’s) Lord (YHVH), accordingly – ref. Psalms 110.

As we all know, David only known Lord in the Old Testament was YHVH himself, the God of the Jews. The God of their forefathers.

As I have warned before, only willingly ignorant always stumble to this Truth. And Biblicist is a living proof of it in my view. However, I will just let the readers to be the better judge of it..... Oh well....

:BangHead:

Note: Everytime you make a repeated false assertion about the above.... I will repost our excerpts fpr everybody to see your deception...

David says that it was JHVH that is speaking and He is speaing to "my ADONAI" not to my "JHVH.

Dear Readers,

As you can see, Biblicist is trying hard to TWIST the actual meaning of the text by being slick in his unresponsive answer….. creating strawman’ argument in the process.

However, based on Biblicist own admission above, clearly, the Speaker of the text who was telling us the prophetic vision that he had experience... regarding the conversation that took place between the LORD and his (David’s) Lord (YHVH), accordingly.

As we all know, David only known Lord as documented in the Old Testament was YHVH himself only.

Obviously, this another malicious vain attempt by Biblicist to cover up their flawed doctrinal faith and understanding of the Scripture….. in order to continue to deceive you.

Case Close! :laugh:

 

[The Biblicist]

Here's the actual quotes.... I save it anticipating that you going to have my thread close to cover up your Biblical illiteracy as far as spititual knowledge is concerned.

For your review...

You are incapable of responding to the evidence I have placed before you and so you simply act like a parrot and repeat your silly mantra which has no basis in reality.

Are you incapable of reading or comprehending what you have read? Jesus said that David was speaking BY THE SPIRIT! So are you charging the Holy Spirit with error in what he guided David to write?????

You can't change the grammar! The subject of the verb "said" is YHVH not Adonai or David. The object of the verb "said" is not JHVH but "Adonai."

You are speaking total irrational nonsense!

 

[The Biblicist]

repeated by accident

 

[The Biblicist]

anticipating that you going to have my thread close - Seve

I do no have any authority or power to close any thread on this forum. So you don't know what you are talking about.

 

[The Biblicist]

1. This is a false translation. The phrase "The LORD (?) said unto my (David') Lord (YHVH)"

The text literally reads from the Hebrew "YHVH said unto my ADONAI".

2. Grammatically the subject who is speaking is YHVH and the object of the verb is "ADONAI". This is true in the Hebrew. This is true in the Greek. This is true in the English. This is true in the Septuigent rendering.

CONCLUSION: your inserted parthentical explanations are not just FALSE but an intentional attempt to change God's Word to say and mean something grammatical impossible.
instead of YHVH

Originally Posted by Seve

While the term “Lord” is used interchangeably to address the Title of both the Father and the Son, I am very much aware of the rendition of the Hebrew Scholars in ref. to the cited text above (Psalms 110). That's exactly why the issue has been brought forth to this thread (topic).

This is also false! The translated term "Lord" with lower case letters is not interchangable with the term "LORD" with upper case lettering in the English translation. The upper case is ONLY used when it is translating the Hebrew term YHVH and NEVER translated by the lower case "Lord." The lower case "Lord" translates the Hebrew term Adonai but NEVER the Hebrew term YHVH.

In Psalm 110:1 neither can the Hebrew YHVH be interchangable with Adonai in this sentence as one is the subject of the verb while the other is the object and the object of the verb "said" is not YHVH as you falsely insert into your parentetical interpretation but it is Adonai.[/QUOTE]

The questions, however, that need to be answered to prove your case… in analyzing the context of the actual text itself…. are the following.

1) Who was the actual Speaker of the cited text, ref. Psalms 110 in the Old Testament?

1. The one WRITING and RECORDING this is David. Jesus introduces the WRITTEN QUOTATION by David with his usual introduction when naming the writer "David said" or "Isaiath saith" or "the scriptures saith."

2. The one SPEAKING those words is identified grammatically by David as YHVH

3. The one RECEIVING those words is identified grammatically by David is Adonai.

2) Who was the Speaker’ Lord..... referring to as… “ MY LORD” in the Old Testament?

YHVH tells Adonai to sit at his right hand until his enemies are made his footstool. Adonai cannot be David because after David is dead and buried this prophecy is NOT YET fulfilled even when Christ quoted it. The same prophecy is found in Psalm 2 where it is YHVH speaking to "MY SON" and the context is prophetic and begins only at the ascension of Christ in to heaven and is not fulfilled until Christ returns as King of kings and LORD of Lords.

Furthermore, Jesus says this prophecy was concering "The SON of David" and not David!

3) When was the fulfillment of the prophetic vision took place, after Christ ressurection?

David is dead and buried and this prophecy is still be quoted as yet unfulfilled until AFTER the resurrection of Jesus Christ and his ascension into heaven - Acts 2.

The Sons is still at the right hand of the Father and therefore this prophecy has yet to be fulfilled.

So "Adonai" = "the Son of David" = the "Lord" of David = Jesus Christ

So YHVH = the one sitting on the throne now in heaven = The Father

Now if you can honestly answer the questions I brought forth above correctly, then, your objection to my posts will have a basis to stand on, for a change.

I have answered your questions fully and they prove you are the one who simply does not know what you are talking about!

 

[The Biblicist]

1. This is a false translation. The phrase "The LORD (?) said unto my (David') Lord (YHVH)"

The text literally reads from the Hebrew "YHVH said unto my ADONAI".

2. Grammatically the subject who is speaking is YHVH and the object of the verb is "ADONAI". This is true in the Hebrew. This is true in the Greek. This is true in the English. This is true in the Septuigent rendering.

CONCLUSION: your inserted parthentical explanations are not just FALSE but an intentional attempt to change God's Word to say and mean something grammatical impossible.
instead of YHVH




This is also false! The translated term "Lord" with lower case letters is not interchangable with the term "LORD" with upper case lettering in the English translation. The upper case is ONLY used when it is translating the Hebrew term YHVH and NEVER translated by the lower case "Lord." The lower case "Lord" translates the Hebrew term Adonai but NEVER the Hebrew term YHVH.

In Psalm 110:1 neither can the Hebrew YHVH be interchangable with Adonai in this sentence as one is the subject of the verb while the other is the object and the object of the verb "said" is not YHVH as you falsely insert into your parentetical interpretation but it is Adonai.

1. The one WRITING and RECORDING this is David. Jesus introduces the WRITTEN QUOTATION by David with his usual introduction when naming the writer "David said" or "Isaiath saith" or "the scriptures saith."

2. The one SPEAKING those words is identified grammatically by David as YHVH

3. The one RECEIVING those words is identified grammatically by David is Adonai.



YHVH tells Adonai to sit at his right hand until his enemies are made his footstool. Adonai cannot be David because after David is dead and buried this prophecy is NOT YET fulfilled even when Christ quoted it. The same prophecy is found in Psalm 2 where it is YHVH speaking to "MY SON" and the context is prophetic and begins only at the ascension of Christ in to heaven and is not fulfilled until Christ returns as King of kings and LORD of Lords.

Furthermore, Jesus says this prophecy was concering "The SON of David" and not David!



David is dead and buried and this prophecy is still be quoted as yet unfulfilled until AFTER the resurrection of Jesus Christ and his ascension into heaven - Acts 2.

The Sons is still at the right hand of the Father and therefore this prophecy has yet to be fulfilled.

So "Adonai" = "the Son of David" = the "Lord" of David = Jesus Christ

So YHVH = the one sitting on the throne now in heaven = The Father


I have answered your questions fully and they prove you are the one who simply does not know what you are talking about!

 

[The Biblicist]

1. The one WRITING and RECORDING this is David. Jesus introduces the WRITTEN QUOTATION by David with his usual introduction when naming the writer "David said" or "Isaiath saith" or "the scriptures saith."

2. The one SPEAKING those words is identified grammatically by David as YHVH

3. The one RECEIVING those words is identified grammatically by David is Adonai.

4. It is the "Son of David" who is the lower case "Lord" who will sit at the right hand of YHVH until YHVH makes Christ enemies his footstool. Making his enemies his footstool occurs only when he comes back as KING of kings and LORD of Lords.



YHVH tells Adonai to sit at his right hand until his enemies are made his footstool. Adonai cannot be David because after David is dead and buried this prophecy is NOT YET fulfilled even when Christ quoted it. The same prophecy is found in Psalm 2 where it is YHVH speaking to "MY SON" and the context is prophetic and begins only at the ascension of Christ in to heaven and is not fulfilled until Christ returns as King of kings and LORD of Lords.

Furthermore, Jesus says this prophecy was concering "The SON of David" and not David!



David is dead and buried and this prophecy is still be quoted as yet unfulfilled until AFTER the resurrection of Jesus Christ and his ascension into heaven - Acts 2.

The Sons is still at the right hand of the Father and therefore this prophecy has yet to be fulfilled.

So "Adonai" = "the Son of David" = the "Lord" of David = Jesus Christ

So YHVH = the one sitting on the throne now in heaven = The Father


I have answered your questions fully and they prove you are the one who simply does not know what you are talking about!

The Psalm 110:1 prophecy does not BEGIN to be fulfilled until AFTER Christ ascends into heaven after the resurrection and will not be completely fulfilled until Jesus comes the Second time.

This means that YHVH in Psalm 110:1 cannot possibly be Christ as it is Christ that is now seated at the Father's right hand and that position is assigned in David's prophecy not to YHVH but to Adonai by YHVH!

Hence, your view of Christ's person ALONE as the YHVH is wrong and your view of his resurrection body is just as wrong as David ties in the resurrection of the body that was not left in the grave as part of this propechy.

Acts 2:31 He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption.
32 This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses.
33 Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Ghost, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear.
34 For David is not ascended into the heavens: but he saith himself, The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand,
35 Until I make thy foes thy footstool.

The part of this prophecy that is fulfilled at the ascension of Christ into heaven is the part that says "Sit thou on my right hand." The next part is not fulfilled until the second coming or the part that says "Until I make thy foes thy footstool." That part begins to be fulfilled at the Second coming is brought to full completion by the end of the millennium and then the Son hands the kingdom back over to the Father.

It is the lower case "Lord" that sits at the right hand of YHVH (YHVH being the upper case "LORD"). In the Hebrew text the lower case "Lord" is Adonai NOT YHVH.

 

[The Biblicist]

David by the direction and leadership of the Holy Spirit RECORDS IN WRITING a conversation between YHVH and Adonai in heaven in Psalm 110:1. It is basically the very same conversation recorded by David in Psalm 2.

The conversation that he records by divine inspiration is that YHVH speaking to Adonai, who is the "Son of David" and yet David identifies him as his Adonai or "Lord" is that Christ will sit at the right hand of YHVH in heaven until YHVH makes the enemies of Christ (Adonai = The Son of David = Lord) his footstool.

Jesus quotes it as a prophecy not yet fulfilled.

Peter quotes it as a prophecy that began to be fulfilled at the ascension of Christ in heaven where he sits at the right hand of YHVH His Father. Thus he is the Adonai at YHVH's right side.

This prophecy is brought to fulfillment when Christ is crowned KING of kings and LORD of Lord's after having put down all power and authority at His second return.

The resurrected glorified HUMAN FLESH BODY of Christ is the living proof of Christ's victory over death and sin which all the apostles touch and see as "FLESH" for 40 days and then see "THIS SAME JESUS" taken up into heaven and the angels promise that they will see him coming in like manner as they have "SEEN" him go to heaven.

 

[Gerhard Ebersoehn]

Quote:
Originally Posted by Seve
.......................................
Conclusion:

No man knows the name of the invisible Almighty God Father at this time.

GE:

When was "at this time"? Christ's on earth in human form; or David's time?

Whichever, God has always made Himself known by NOTHING THAN his NAME.

'Yahweh' is the LORD'S NAME, as 'Adonai' is the LORD'S Name.

Yes, David recorded what he saw with spiritual eye which never can be expressed in exact human terms, How God spoke to God. Believers like David and Peter have never found that strange or difficult. Only from that Messianic Christianity most recently has developed, God no longer can be known by his Name for whom Jesus Christ revealed HIM.

 

[The Biblicist]

Originally Posted by Seve
Dear Readers,
regarding the conversation that took place between the LORD and his (David’s) Lord (YHVH), accordingly.

Note that Seve has intentionally reversed what the Bibical text actually says.

Seve says "his (David's) Lord (YHVH)" whereas the actual Hebrew Text says "my(David's) Lord (Adonai). Seve is intentionally perverting the Word of God and changing it to suit his own belly.

It is Adonai that is sit at YHVH's right hand. That is precisely where Christ is NOW sitting in heaven. So YHVH here cannot possibly refer to Christ but refers to the Father.

Although YHVH is equally applied to both the Father and the Son (as well as the Holy Spirit) in some texts such as Isaiah 44:6:

6 Thus saith the LORD [YHVH] the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD [YHVH] of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.

However, there are two different PERSONS that are being identified as YHVH in Isaiah 44:6. The first is identified as YHVH king of Israel whereas the second Person is identified by the pronoun "HIS redeemer" - meaning, the King of Israel's redeemer who is also identified as "YHVH of hosts".

The pronominal phrase "HIS redeemer YHVH of hosts" grammatically proves that two Personages are being described and simply not one personage.

However, in Psalm 110:1 YHVH of Hosts is called Adonai because He was David's redeemer. David by saying "my Adonai" was claiming YHVH of Hosts as His redeemer as specified in Isaiah 44:6 and many other places.

Bottom line! YHVH is a term used for all three Persons of the Godhead. However, in Psalm 110:1 One of these Divine Personages of the Godhead is being described in his relationship as David's redeemer and thus called "my Adonai" in order to distinguish Him from the Father YHVH who sits on the throne.

As we all know, David only known Lord as documented in the Old Testament was YHVH himself only.

We have proven from Isaiah 44:6 and Psalm 110:1 there are more Personages in the Godhead than merely one and each are identified by the name YHVH. However, only ONE of those Personages is identified as man's "redeemer, YHVH of Hosts" and that is whom David refers to as "my Adonai" which distinguishes YHVH of Hosts the Redeemer from YHVH King of Israel.

Elohim the plural form (three or more) is also used for all Persons within the Godhead with PLURAL pronouns ("we"..."us") but always with SINGULAR verbs ("created"...."make") as in Genesis 1:1, 26 and other passages.

CONCLUSION: Seve is deceived and trying to deceive others. The term YHVH is used for all THREE Divine Personages and not just One as Seve falsely claims. He simply does not have a FACTUAL understanding of the context or the grammar.

Secondly, Jesus identifies "the Son of David" as the One who sits at the right hand of YHVH as David predicted, thus identifying Himself in this particular passage as "Adonai" rather than "YHVH" or in his reduced covenant role as redeemer who takes upon the nature of man.

 

[Seve]

Motion for Reconsideration of Coninuance has been denied.....​

CASE CLOSED ​

Reasons... Blatant Distortion of Facts by the accuser..... see excerpts below....

While the term “Lord” is used interchangeably to address the Title of both the Father and the Son, I am very much aware of the rendition of the Hebrew Scholars in ref. to the cited text above (Psalms 110). That's exactly why the issue has been brought forth to this thread (topic).

The questions, however, that need to be answered to prove your case… in analyzing the context of the actual text itself…. are the following.

1) Who was the actual Speaker of the cited text, ref. Psalms 110 in the Old Testament?
2) Who was the Speaker’ Lord..... referring to as… “ MY LORD” in the Old Testament?
3) When was the fulfillment of the prophetic vision took place, after Christ ressurection?

Now if you can honestly answer the questions I brought forth above correctly, then, your objection to my posts will have a basis to stand on, for a change.

However, let me warn you that only willingly ignorant will always stumble to this revelation of Biblical Truth.

David says that it was JHVH that is speaking and He is speaing to "my ADONAI" not to my "JHVH


... Again, the speaker is YHVH (LORD) not Adonai ("my Lord")

Dear Readers,

Obviously, that’s another malicious vain attempt by Biblicist to cover up their flawed doctrinal understanding of the Scripture…..distorting and twisting the text in attempt to response to our simple questions above.

However, based on Biblicist own answer (see underlined quote) above, clearly……. regardless how hard he tried to twist the text to suit his likings – Biblicist is forced to admit to the fact, that the actual Speaker of the text was David himself.......….. telling us the story about his prophetic vision he had in the OT…… regarding the conversation that took place between the LORD and his (David’s) Lord (YHVH), accordingly – ref. Psalms 110.

As we all know, David only known Lord in the Old Testament was YHVH himself, the God of the Jews. The God of their forefathers.

As I have warned before, only willingly ignorant always stumble to this Truth. And Biblicist is a living proof of it in my view. However, I will just let the readers to be the better judge of it..... Oh well....

:BangHead:

 

[The Biblicist]

Readers,

Notice Seve cannot address my responses but merely REPEATS his disproven assertions. He cannot deal with the facts so he attempts to slander and attack my person. That is a clear clue that Seve has no where to go but to repeat disproven nonsense.

Posts 7-10 answer every objection found in these quotations.

Motion for Reconsideration of Coninuance has been denied.....​

CASE CLOSED ​

Reasons... Blatant Distortion of Facts by the accuser..... see excerpts below....

 

[The Biblicist]

Note that Seve has intentionally reversed what the Bibical text actually says.

Seve says "his (David's) Lord (YHVH)" whereas the actual Hebrew Text says "my(David's) Lord (Adonai). Seve is intentionally perverting the Word of God and changing it to suit his own belly.

It is Adonai that is sit at YHVH's right hand. That is precisely where Christ is NOW sitting in heaven. So YHVH here cannot possibly refer to Christ but refers to the Father.

Although YHVH is equally applied to both the Father and the Son (as well as the Holy Spirit) in some texts such as Isaiah 44:6:

6 Thus saith the LORD [YHVH] the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD [YHVH] of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.

However, there are two different PERSONS that are being identified as YHVH in Isaiah 44:6. The first is identified as YHVH king of Israel whereas the second Person is identified by the pronoun "HIS redeemer" - meaning, the King of Israel's redeemer who is also identified as "YHVH of hosts".

The pronominal phrase "HIS redeemer YHVH of hosts" grammatically proves that two Personages are being described and simply not one personage.

However, in Psalm 110:1 YHVH of Hosts is called Adonai because He was David's redeemer. David by saying "my Adonai" was claiming YHVH of Hosts as His redeemer as specified in Isaiah 44:6 and many other places.

Bottom line! YHVH is a term used for all three Persons of the Godhead. However, in Psalm 110:1 One of these Divine Personages of the Godhead is being described in his relationship as David's redeemer and thus called "my Adonai" in order to distinguish Him from the Father YHVH who sits on the throne.




We have proven from Isaiah 44:6 and Psalm 110:1 there are more Personages in the Godhead than merely one and each are identified by the name YHVH. However, only ONE of those Personages is identified as man's "redeemer, YHVH of Hosts" and that is whom David refers to as "my Adonai" which distinguishes YHVH of Hosts the Redeemer from YHVH King of Israel.

Elohim the plural form (three or more) is also used for all Persons within the Godhead with PLURAL pronouns ("we"..."us") but always with SINGULAR verbs ("created"...."make") as in Genesis 1:1, 26 and other passages.

CONCLUSION: Seve is deceived and trying to deceive others. The term YHVH is used for all THREE Divine Personages and not just One as Seve falsely claims. He simply does not have a FACTUAL understanding of the context or the grammar.

Secondly, Jesus identifies "the Son of David" as the One who sits at the right hand of YHVH as David predicted, thus identifying Himself in this particular passage as "Adonai" rather than "YHVH" or in his reduced covenant role as redeemer who takes upon the nature of man.

I have provided posts 5-10 plus the above post in a detailed response to Seve's assertions. Thus far, all Seve has done is merely reassert his position wtihout providing any substantive response.

 

[Yeshua1]

I have provided posts 5-10 plus the above post in a detailed response to Seve's assertions. Thus far, all Seve has done is merely reassert his position wtihout providing any substantive response.

Jesus point in that Psalm being refernced to by him was to ask the pharisees to consider that their King David called the messiah his "Lord", so messiah greater than any King!

And hebrews made it clear that God said to God is what was going on....

father God told his Son God to sit down and have all of his enemies placed under his feet, as his kingdom would be everlasting all all encompasing!

 

[Yeshua1]

GE:

When was "at this time"? Christ's on earth in human form; or David's time?

Whichever, God has always made Himself known by NOTHING THAN his NAME.

'Yahweh' is the LORD'S NAME, as 'Adonai' is the LORD'S Name.

Yes, David recorded what he saw with spiritual eye which never can be expressed in exact human terms, How God spoke to God. Believers like David and Peter have never found that strange or difficult. Only from that Messianic Christianity most recently has developed, God no longer can be known by his Name for whom Jesus Christ revealed HIM.

God gave theem HIS name... Yahweh, SAME name jesus also claimed for himself!