Put your brain on!

[jim62]

Genesis 19:8-14

King James Version (KJV)

8 Behold now, I have two daughters which have not known man; let me, I pray you, bring them out unto you, and do ye to them as is good in your eyes: only unto these men do nothing; for therefore came they under the shadow of my roof.
9 And they said, Stand back. And they said again, This one fellow came in to sojourn, and he will needs be a judge: now will we deal worse with thee, than with them. And they pressed sore upon the man, even Lot, and came near to break the door.
10 But the men put forth their hand, and pulled Lot into the house to them, and shut to the door.
11 And they smote the men that were at the door of the house with blindness, both small and great: so that they wearied themselves to find the door.
12 And the men said unto Lot, Hast thou here any besides? son in law, and thy sons, and thy daughters, and whatsoever thou hast in the city, bring them out of this place:
13 For we will destroy this place, because the cry of them is waxen great before the face of the Lord; and the Lord hath sent us to destroy it.
14 And Lot went out, and spake unto his sons in law, which married his daughters, and said, Up, get you out of this place; for the Lord will destroy this city. But he seemed as one that mocked unto his sons in law. ********** Question if Lot had sons in law, why was his daughters still virgins??????

 

[freeatlast]

We cannot be positive, but in searching I did find a couple possibilites:
Lot had at least 4 daughters, at least two married and two unmarried. In verse 15, where Lot’s two daughters in the house (19:15) might be contrasted with other daughters who were married to his sons-in-law (19:14), and thus were out of the house. Since the angels who urged Lot to hasten his departure modified “two daughters” with the phrase “who are here,” then it is conceivable that Lot could have had daughters elsewhere who remained in Sodom and were destroyed along with Lot’s sons-in-law.

Another explanation revolves around the modifying phrase “who had married his daughters” (19:14). The words “who had married” are from the Hebrew word laqach , which means in the widest variety of applications “to take” or “to grasp.” In this passage, the word obviously is used in reference to taking a “wife.” According to Hebrew scholar Victor Hamilton, “The Hebrew form used here is a participle (loqcheey), and as such is without a specific tense reference. Even the ancient versions differed on how to render the participle, with the [Latin] Vulgate opting for a future tense, and the LXX [Septuagint—the first Greek translation of the Old Testament] opting for a past tense” (1995, p. 40, bracketed items added). Biblical commentator John T. Willis agreed, saying, “The Hebrew lying behind the phrase who were to marry can be interpreted equally well in either of two ways” (1984, p. 266). Interestingly, most modern translations (including the NAS , RSV, and NIV ) agree with first-century Jewish historian Flavius Josephus in making these men future sons-in-law (1:11:4). This is in contrast to the KJV, ASV, and NKJV, each of which renders these men as already being sons-in-law (“who had married”). No doubt the translators of the more modern versions believed that Lot’s “sons-in-law” were only betrothed, not married, to Lot’s daughters at the time they departed Sodom.

Another thing I have always found interesting is how the men outside who wanted the those inside for illicit relations continued to seek the door after they were blinded. That shows just how strong a hold sin can have on people if they refuse to repent.

 

[Scarlett O.]

Sometimes an engagement was just as binding as the actual marriage - there just wasn't any sex until they actually were allowed to live together. It's highly possible that these two daughters were "married" in the sense of betrothed with was not like engagements today.

 

[SolaSaint]

Makes me wonder if Christians in America cry out as they did in Sodom and Gomarah will He send angels to destroy? Is America as immoral as these two ancient cities.

 

[Steadfast Fred]

Another explanation is those two girls that Lot took out with him were his only daughters and they were married but had not consummated the marriage.

Why would they not consummate the marriage? Because their husbands were not interested in marrying them for the normal reason. We must remember that Sodom and Gomorrah were cities that were rampant with homosexuality.

The husbands of the girls were more interested in the men of the city than with the girls. It is possible they only married for "political" reasons.

 

[Steadfast Fred]

The reason I believe it is possible that the two girls were married is because of the following verses:

Genesis 19:4-5 But before they lay down, the men of the city, even the men of Sodom, compassed the house round, both old and young, all the people from every quarter: And they called unto Lot, and said unto him, Where are the men which came in to thee this night? bring them out unto us, that we may know them.

Notice it says "the men of the city, even the men of Sodom"? It does not say some of the men, but rather "the men" leaving none out. Even Lots sons-in-law were crying out wanting to "know the men" that visited Lot.