Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?
And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness.
Did Jesus say that because his about to be, water baptism, would fulfil all righteousness or was it because his water baptism was a shadow (picture) of the baptism he would speak of later in Matt 20:22 But Jesus answered and said, Ye know not what ye ask. Are ye able to drink of the cup that I shall drink of, and to be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with? They say unto him, We are able.???
Is the cup and baptism being spoken of in Matt 20 his upcoming death and resurrection? In reality isn't it the death and resurrection of Jesus that manifest the righteousness of God without the law? Fulfils all righteousness? Rom 3:21
How does 2 Cor 5:21 fit into the equation?
For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness.
Did Jesus say that because his about to be, water baptism, would fulfil all righteousness or was it because his water baptism was a shadow (picture) of the baptism he would speak of later in Matt 20:22 But Jesus answered and said, Ye know not what ye ask. Are ye able to drink of the cup that I shall drink of, and to be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with? They say unto him, We are able.???
Is the cup and baptism being spoken of in Matt 20 his upcoming death and resurrection? In reality isn't it the death and resurrection of Jesus that manifest the righteousness of God without the law? Fulfils all righteousness? Rom 3:21
How does 2 Cor 5:21 fit into the equation?
For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.