Is it a sin to reword a passage in the KJV in order to comprehend it better? For instance, let’s say I want to understand this passage from Hebrews:
“If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
12For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.
13For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar.
And I am having trouble understanding it, and I rewrote it like this:
"Under the Levitical priesthood the people received the Law. So if perfection were by that priesthood, it was necessary for another priest to rise after the order of Melchisedec, not being called after the order of Aoran.
For the priesthood is being changed. The law of necessity is changed.
For the man these things are spoken of, (Jesus), pertains to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar."
And I changed no meanings but only sentence structure, would it be a sin?
I’m not sure if I did it right though.
I know the way I interpreted it might seem strange but that's the only one I can derive from the text reading it for myself.
“If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
12For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.
13For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar.
And I am having trouble understanding it, and I rewrote it like this:
"Under the Levitical priesthood the people received the Law. So if perfection were by that priesthood, it was necessary for another priest to rise after the order of Melchisedec, not being called after the order of Aoran.
For the priesthood is being changed. The law of necessity is changed.
For the man these things are spoken of, (Jesus), pertains to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar."
And I changed no meanings but only sentence structure, would it be a sin?
I’m not sure if I did it right though.
I know the way I interpreted it might seem strange but that's the only one I can derive from the text reading it for myself.
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