Romans 2 - What is the context?

[Allan]

In another thread a poster stated this concerning the context of Romans chapter 2:

The context in Ro. 2 is not about some sense of right or wrong in fallen man but about evidence of the Spiritual birth through their deeds:

(for when Gentiles [NON-JEWS] that have not the law do by nature the things of the law......... they show the work of the law written in their hearts [I.E. AGAPE, which is the fruit of the Spirit and which is the fulfillment of the law,] ........ Ro 2:14,15

To which I disagree, and then the poster gave this rendering of which was posted not once but apparently twice (another time in another thread).

If therefore the uncircumcision [NON JEWS] keep the ordinances of the law, shall not his uncircumcision be reckoned for circumcision? Ro 2:26

but he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit not in the letter;..... Ro 2:29

So now the inevitable question. If all this time NON JEWS who had not the law could still be children of God.......... What advantage then hath the Jew? or what is the profit of circumcision? Ro 3:1

The answer:

Much every way: first of all, that they were intrusted with the oracles of God. Ro 3:2

I realize the poster is skipping around like a mad hatter but...
the question is this:
What is the context of Romans chapter 2?
Is it speaking of men, who have have never heard or known of the law given to the Jews (or even the gospel or Christ), being regenerate and living godly lives (IOW- Saved having never known or believed)?
OR
Is it speaking of something else?

If something else then please explain not only 'what' but 'why', so we can evaluate the content of the context.

I will give my view after a little bit, just curious to see your thoughts out there.

 

[kyredneck]

Allan, why didn't you just answer the question that I posed twice on the thread instead of starting another thread?:

.....All have this inner conscience of the moral law of God and image of God that reflect God's communicable attributes.

Again, is there anyone that can build a case from scripture that indicates the above statement is true? I am not trying to pick a fight, neither was it my intent to hijack the thread. I really would like to know.

With all your great learning and gray matter you shouldn't have a problem building the case, excluding Romans 2:14,15, of course because the passage most definitely is not about some ' inner conscience of the moral law of God' in unregenerate man.

To answer your question, “Romans 2, what is the context”; again you
COULD have participated in that thread instead of creating this redundancy:

What it seems Paul is doing in the beginning of Romans 1-3 is condemning the entire human race.

Yes, I couldn't agree more. Whether Jew or Greek ( there is no respect of persons with God) all are under sin. But also contained within these passages is a direct inference to the work of the Spirit in regeneration, whether Jew or Greek ( there is no respect of persons with God). Thus: What advantage then hath the Jew? or what is the profit of circumcision? Ro 3:1

And more from the thread:

Consider 2 Cor 1:12. Isn't the conscience doing the very same thing in this passage as it is in Ro 2:15?

For our glorifying is this, the testimony of our conscience, that in holiness and sincerity of God, not in fleshly wisdom but in the grace of God, we behaved ourselves in the world, and more abundantly to you-ward. 2 Cor 1:12

14 (for when Gentiles that have not the law do by nature the things of the law, these, not having the law, are the law unto themselves;
15 in that they show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness therewith, and their thoughts one with another accusing or else excusing them); Ro 2

It appears to me the conscience is bearing witness to the individual of the law written in their hearts in Ro 2:15 just as the testimony of the conscience assured of good behavior in the 2 Cor passage. Note, it's the mind (thoughts) that accuses or excuses, NOT the conscience (see Titus 1:15).

Is there a synonymy or relationshiip with this passage?:

The Spirit himself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are children of God: Ro 8:16

Heheh, a good conscience is a very desirable thing to have:

having a good conscience; that, wherein ye are spoken against, they may be put to shame who revile your good manner of life in Christ. 1 Pet 3:16

Herein I also exercise myself to have a conscience void of offence toward God and men always. Acts 24:16

which also after a true likeness doth now save you, even baptism, not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the interrogation of a good conscience toward God, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ; 1 Pet 3:21

Wherefore ye must needs be in subjection, not only because of the wrath, but also for conscience sake. Ro 13:5

Deacons in like manner must be grave, not double-tongued, not given to much wine, not greedy of filthy lucre; holding the mystery of the faith in a pure conscience. 1 Tim 3:8,9

I thank God, whom I serve from my forefathers in a pure conscience, how unceasing is my remembrance of thee in my supplications, night and day 2 Tim 1:3

And Paul, looking stedfastly on the council, said, Brethren, I have lived before God in all good conscience until this day. Acts 23:1

 

[Allan]

Because this is a different topic and thus I created a 'different' thread.
I was being polite and didn't wish to derail the other thread.

BTW - you haven't answered the OP at all, you just reposted what I already posted.

 

[canadyjd]

What is the context of Romans chapter 2?
Is it speaking of men, who have have never heard or known of the law given to the Jews (or even the gospel or Christ), being regenerate and living godly lives (IOW- Saved having never known or believed)?
OR
Is it speaking of something else?

If something else then please explain not only 'what' but 'why', so we can evaluate the content of the context.

The context of Romans 1-7 is that all men stand condemned before God. The Jews stand condemned for violating the Law given to them by God. The Gentiles stand condemned for violating the law written on their hearts, violating their conscience.

The purpose of Romans 2 is to shame the Jews who condemned Gentiles for their actions by pointing out that Gentiles keep some of God's commandments because of conscience even though they don't have God's Law, whereas the Jews where breaking God's Law even though they know better.

Paul's point, eventually, is that everyone is enslaved to sin and stands condemned before God. The only hope is Christ Jesus who frees the elect/remnant/children of promise from sin and death and gives us a new life in the Spirit.

peace to youraying:

 

[zrs6v4]

The context of Romans 1-7 is that all men stand condemned before God. The Jews stand condemned for violating the Law given to them by God. The Gentiles stand condemned for violating the law written on their hearts, violating their conscience.

The purpose of Romans 2 is to shame the Jews who condemned Gentiles for their actions by pointing out that Gentiles keep some of God's commandments because of conscience even though they don't have God's Law, whereas the Jews where breaking God's Law even though they know better.

Paul's point, eventually, is that everyone is enslaved to sin and stands condemned before God. The only hope is Christ Jesus who frees the elect/remnant/children of promise from sin and death and gives us a new life in the Spirit.

peace to youraying:

I agree 100% with this post.