Heavenly Pilgrim
New Member
BR: Literal payment as in literal sacrifice that met the demands of His OWN literal Law.
HP: No one that I know denies there was a literal sacrifice for sin. That is not the essence of the literal payment theory. The literal payment theory is a grocery store model, i.e. a specific payment for a specific debt incurred by a specific sin. If you do not believe that is the model, you do not believe what in theological circles is known as the literal payment theory.
You claim on one hand that the atonement met the demands of His law, utilizing words such as ‘literal payment’ yet then appear to deny it as a literal payment. If there ‘is no "bank" and there is no "seller of sins" and there is no "Christ paying the Father for sin". I.e. No "grocery store for sins"………..then why speak of it as a literal ‘payment?’ It was not a payment, but rather a satisfaction of the debt that was made, a substitution ‘in place’ of the literal penalty. The literal penalty again is nothing short of eternal separation from God. Jesus did not suffer the literal penalty of sin. Jesus offered Himself as a substitutionary sacrifice that god accepted as a satisfaction of the demands of the law, not a literal payment of any kind.
BR: There is only Christ providing the substitutionary "Atoning Sacrifice" to meet the demands of the Law.
HP: IMO it would be helpful to the reader to eliminate the word ‘literal payment’ all together when speaking of the atonement, due to the fact of those holding to the literal payment theory and its necessitated ramifications. Christ sufferings were as you say here, a substitutionary sacrifice, not a literal payment.