Pastor_Bob
Well-Known Member
What issues would cause you to practice ecclesiastical separation from other churches, denominations, religions, etc...
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I voted that I would not separate on issues pertaining to versions of the Bible but actually I would draw the line at use of the New World Translation.Pastor_Bob said:What issues would cause you to practice ecclesiastical separation from other churches, denominations, religions, etc...
But that would not stop me from "attending" a JW kingdom hall or an RC church service and worshipping with them.
BobRyan said:When you speak of "ecclesiastical separation" do you mean "regard them as non-Christian"??
If so - then the "other" category for me would be the line drawn where some says either that the Bible is not the Word of God (which includes anyone who rejects the NT) or that Christ is not our Savior.
Those are the two conditions that "to me" define what is a Christian and what is not.
in Christ,
Bob
No, I simply mean that it is an issue over which one would separate fellowship. In other words, you wouldn't have him in to preach for you and you wouldn't preach for him. You wouldn't support his youth meetings, revivals, etc..., nor invite him to yours.BobRyan said:When you speak of "ecclesiastical separation" do you mean "regard them as non-Christian"??
Iamodd4God said:Hi Bob,
Just want to know your stance on this. If you would, please read the following two passages of Scripture and give me your take on them...
...
As you can see these two records contradict one another. Luke has one criminal casting insults on Jesus and the other rebuking him, but Matthew has both crominals casting insults on Jesus. Since the Scripture is the inspired Word of God, which of these two are truely the inspired Word of God?
Ken said -
What about translations? Check this out...
KJV
2Timothy 3:16 All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
2Timothy 3:17 That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.
NIV
2Timothy 3:16 All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness,
2Timothy 3:17 so that the man of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work.
Why did the NIV leave out "that the man of God may be perfect"? So which Bible version is the correct one?
My point is that yes Scripture is the infallible Word of God, but the Bible although is supposed to be the Scriptures re-written for us; it does have problem areas that does raise question to its authenticity.
Me personally, I believe that the Bible for the most part can be trusted, but for questionable additions such as the ending of Mark, I disregard. I don't use them as sound doctrine to correct or instruct. For other problem passages such as the above; I write it off as human error, and regardless of which one is right or wrong doesn't matter as neither has anything to do with my relationship to God.