Simple thought simplified

[Dr. Walter]

Do not all humans have the SAME ROOT PROBLEM - Sin? - Rom. 3:9-10,22,23

9 What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin;
10 As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one....
22......for there is no difference:
23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;



Is not sin an INTERNAL problem BEFORE it is externally manifested and thus a spiritual problem or a problem of the heart, mind and will that is only made manifest by words and actions?

Mt. 15:18 But those things which proceed out of the mouth come forth from the heart; and they defile the man.
19 For out of the heart proceed evil thoughts, murders, adulteries, fornications, thefts, false witness, blasphemies:


Since "all" have the very same problem and it is an internal problem of the heart - A SPIRITUAL PROBLEM - how could God have more than ONE solution for ONE universal problem without having different salvations, different saviors and different gospels to different men?

1. Why would there be more than ONE common solution to ONE common problem?

2. Why would there be more than ONE kind of salvation under heaven among men - Acts 4:12?

3. Why would there be more than ONE gospel? - Gal. 1:6-7

4. Why would there be more than ONE Savior - Jn. 14:6; Acts 4:12

5. Why would there be more than ONE Mediator between God and man to resolve this one common problem - 1 Tim. 2:5?

6. Why would there be more than ONE way to heaven for all men - Mt. 7:13-14; Jn. 14:6

7. Why wouldn't any "other gospel" be accursed if there was but ONE common problem and ONE common solution? - Gal. 1:6-9

 

[Dr. Walter]

Another simplied consideration?

What can the Law of God do to resolve this INTERNAL problem common to all mankind?

1. The Law can provide knowledge of what sin is but can it cure sinning? - Rom. 3:20

2. The Law can stop every mouth from claiming to be righteous but cannot justifiy sinners? - Rom. 3:19-20; Gal. 3:10-12; Acts 3:

3. The Law can condemns sinners for sin but can the Law give them the desire not to sin?

4. The Law can condemn sinners to eternal death but can the law given them eternal life? - Gal. 3:19

5. The Law can define good from bad works but can the Law produce faith or even of faith? - Gal. 3:12; Rom. 4:16

6. How can the Law be considered or included as "good news" (the gospel) since the only thing it can do is to define, judge and condemn, stop every mouth and reward death but cannot provide life, liberty from sin or spiritual desire for righteousness?

Do not all humans have the SAME ROOT PROBLEM - Sin? - Rom. 3:9-10,22,23

9 What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin;
10 As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one....
22......for there is no difference:
23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;



Is not sin an INTERNAL problem BEFORE it is externally manifested and thus a spiritual problem or a problem of the heart, mind and will that is only made manifest by words and actions?

Mt. 15:18 But those things which proceed out of the mouth come forth from the heart; and they defile the man.
19 For out of the heart proceed evil thoughts, murders, adulteries, fornications, thefts, false witness, blasphemies:


Since "all" have the very same problem and it is an internal problem of the heart - A SPIRITUAL PROBLEM - how could God have more than ONE solution for ONE universal problem without having different salvations, different saviors and different gospels to different men?

1. Why would there be more than ONE common solution to ONE common problem?

2. Why would there be more than ONE kind of salvation under heaven among men - Acts 4:12?

3. Why would there be more than ONE gospel? - Gal. 1:6-7

4. Why would there be more than ONE Savior - Jn. 14:6; Acts 4:12

5. Why would there be more than ONE Mediator between God and man to resolve this one common problem - 1 Tim. 2:5?

6. Why would there be more than ONE way to heaven for all men - Mt. 7:13-14; Jn. 14:6

7. Why wouldn't any "other gospel" be accursed if there was but ONE common problem and ONE common solution? - Gal. 1:6-9

 

[Dr. Walter]

Since the Bible clearly states that the gospel is "the power of God to salvation" and since the common problem is INTERNAL then the gospel must somehow be the solution to this INTERNAL spiritual problem of a sinful heart or else it is not "the power of God to salvation"!!

1. We know the mere preaching of it by men does not automatically save anyone or else everyone hearing would believe it and be saved.

2. How is it then the "power" of God to salvation?


1 Thes. 1:5 For our gospel came not unto you in word only, but also in power, and in the Holy Ghost, and in much assurance; as ye know what manner of men we were among you for your sake.


Does it come to some men in "word only" and not "in power" and not "in the Holy Ghost" and not "in much assurance"? Obviously or Paul would not distinguish them from that possibility!

Why is Paul saying this to them then? What makes them different? The answer is found in the previous verse. In the previous verse Paul tells them how they can know they are God's elect because the gospel comes in this manner only to God's elect:

1 Thes. 1:4 Knowing, brethren beloved, your election of God.
5 For our gospel came not unto you in word only, but also in power, and in the Holy Ghost, and in much assurance; as ye know what manner of men we were among you for your sake.


It is the power of God unto everyone that beleiveth but Is believing unto election or is election unto believing the gospel? Writing to the same believers Paul answers this question explicitly and directly:

2 Thes. 2:13 ¶ But we are bound to give thanks alway to God for you, brethren beloved of the Lord, because God hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth:



Speaking to others Paul makes it clear what he means:

Act 13:48 And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as were ordained to eternal life believed.


He did not say "as many that believed were ordained to eternal life" but "as many as were ordained to eternal life believed."

Why? Because God empowers the gospel as the effectual call to the elect in order to call them out of darkness into light:

2 thes. 2:14 Whereunto he called you by our gospel, to the obtaining of the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ.


They were chosen "to" salvation rather than saved "to" be elect. They were chosen through chosen means "through....belief of the truth" and thus effectually called by the gospel "to obtaining of the glory."


QUESTION: Are all unto whom the gospel comes "in word only" are called in this same manner?

1 Cor. 1:26 For ye see your calling, brethren, how that not many wise men after the flesh, not many mighty, [B]not many [/B]noble, are called:
27 But God hath chosen the foolish things of the world to confound the wise; and God hath chosen the weak things of the world to confound the things which are mighty;
28 And base things of the world, and things which are despised, hath God chosen, yea, and things which are not, to bring to nought things that are:


Paul clearly teaches that the kind of calling under consideration is LIMITED as he three times repeats "not many" in contrast to "your calling".

Paul clearly teaches that "your calling" is directly has its cause in what "GOD HATH CHOSEN" and God hath NOT chosen to call all men equally in regard to this kind of calling! Why?

29 That no flesh should glory in his presence.
30 But of him are ye in Christ Jesus, who of God is made unto us wisdom, and righteousness, and sanctification, and sanctification, and redemption:
31 That, according as it is written, He that glorieth, let him glory in the Lord.

This kind of calling is ALL OF GRACE and grace is defined in Romans 3:24 as something "freely"! The same term translated "freely" is elsewhere translated "without a cause". The Jews hated Christ "without a cause" in Him for that hated to be JUSTIFIED. Paul is speaking of being justified by grace in Romans 3:24 and is denying that justification by grace finds any cause in the sinner for justification:

Rom. 3:24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:


Paul tells the Thessalonicans that they can "know....your election" because the gospel did not come to them "in word only" but "IN POWER" as God chose in their particular case (the elect) to EMPOWER the gospel when it was preached to them because they were chosen by God unto salvation. Hence, the gospel preached them became God's creative word to EFFECTUALLY call them out of darkness into the light of His kingdom. When the gospel comes IN POWER it is the power of God to salvation as the CREATIVE EMPOWERED WORD of God:

2 Cor. 4:6 For God, who commanded the light to shine out of darkness, hath shined in our hearts, to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in the face of Jesus Christ.


How did the light appear? "God, who COMMANDED the light to shine"

Where did God command it to appear? "hath shined IN OUR HEARTS"

Is this how God BEGETS his Children by this COMMANDED power of the gospel in our Hearts?

James 1:18 Of his own will begat he us with the word of truth, that we should be a kind of firstfruits of his creatures.

1 Pet. 1:23 Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever......25 But the word of the Lord endureth for ever. And this is the word which by the gospel is preached unto you.


This is how God deals with the hearts of men through the effectually empowered preaching of the gospel that CHANGES their hearts:

2 Cor. 3:3 Forasmuch as ye are manifestly declared to be the epistle of Christ ministered by us, written not with ink, but with the Spirit of the living God; not in tables of stone, but in fleshy tables of the heart.


Paul preached the gospel to these at Corinth, of whom he already told them that "not many are called" but "God hath chosen" to call them (1 Cor. 1:26-27) by His grace. Here is a preaching that effects the heart by the power of the Holy Spirit - thus preaching that comes "not in word only but IN POWER...and IN THE SPIRIT" so that it CHANGES the heart.

This is the power of the Spirit according to the provisions of the New Covenant and not the power of Paul:

4 And such trust have we through Christ to God-ward:
5 Not that we are sufficient of ourselves to think any thing as of ourselves; but our sufficiency is of God;
6 ¶ Who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life.


Paul is directly referring to the POWER promised by God in the New Covenant as found in Ezekiel 36:26-27

26 A new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you: and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you an heart of flesh.
27 And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them.


Does God do this for all men?

Deut. 29:4 Yet the LORD hath not given you an heart to perceive, and eyes to see, and ears to hear, unto this day.

Without the Lord giving this heart there is NO ABILITY "to perceive, and eyes to see, and ears to hear."

Therefore, one does not perceive, see and hear IN ORDER to obtain this heart but rather this heart must be given first before one is ABLE to "perceive, and eyes to see and ears to hear."

Empowering the gospel so that it CHANGES the heart by the effectual COMMAND of God is God's solution to sin in the hearts of men. It becomes His creative Word that effectually commands LIGHT to shine forth IN THE HEART thus transforming that heart by writing upon the heart a desire for righteousness, thus giving a new heart through the power of His Word - By his own will He begat us through the Word of truth! Being born again...by the Word of God.