37818
Well-Known Member
This is purely a baptism explanation of 1 Corinthians 15:29, ". . . Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead? . . ."
A number of years ago a friend of mine attempted to explain this to me. And my first response was, no. He did explain that it was the baptist view of the passage. After further study of the context, I realized that was the correct view. Wow.
The questions (v.29-30) Paul poses are in sarcasm. And verse 29 is a continuation of his argument verses 12-19.
". . . Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead? But if there be no resurrection of the dead, then is Christ not risen: And if Christ be not risen, then [is] our preaching vain, and your faith [is] also vain. Yea, and we are found false witnesses of God; because we have testified of God that he raised up Christ: whom he raised not up, if so be that the dead rise not. For if the dead rise not, then is not Christ raised: And if Christ be not raised, your faith [is] vain; ye are yet in your sins. Then they also which are fallen asleep in Christ are perished. If in this life only we have hope in Christ, we are of all men most miserable. . . . Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead? And why stand we in jeopardy every hour? . . ."
Now believers baptism is for Christ's death, ". . . Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death?. . . ." -- Romans 6:3.
Note the argument ". . . But if there be no resurrection of the dead, then is Christ not risen: . . ." And if Christ is not risen, that would make Him among the dead, and they being baptized into death of a dead Christ is to be baptized on behalf of the dead! The point of Paul's sarcasm, ". . .what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?"
A number of years ago a friend of mine attempted to explain this to me. And my first response was, no. He did explain that it was the baptist view of the passage. After further study of the context, I realized that was the correct view. Wow.
The questions (v.29-30) Paul poses are in sarcasm. And verse 29 is a continuation of his argument verses 12-19.
". . . Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead? But if there be no resurrection of the dead, then is Christ not risen: And if Christ be not risen, then [is] our preaching vain, and your faith [is] also vain. Yea, and we are found false witnesses of God; because we have testified of God that he raised up Christ: whom he raised not up, if so be that the dead rise not. For if the dead rise not, then is not Christ raised: And if Christ be not raised, your faith [is] vain; ye are yet in your sins. Then they also which are fallen asleep in Christ are perished. If in this life only we have hope in Christ, we are of all men most miserable. . . . Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead? And why stand we in jeopardy every hour? . . ."
Now believers baptism is for Christ's death, ". . . Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death?. . . ." -- Romans 6:3.
Note the argument ". . . But if there be no resurrection of the dead, then is Christ not risen: . . ." And if Christ is not risen, that would make Him among the dead, and they being baptized into death of a dead Christ is to be baptized on behalf of the dead! The point of Paul's sarcasm, ". . .what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?"
